Does the Run Score or Not?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by harmbu

I am looking at the DEAD BALL AND DELAYED DEAD BALL TABLE on page 35 in the 2014 NFHS RULES BOOK to address a situation in our game from today.

Bases loaded with one out. Batter hits a ground ball toward shortstop and the ball hits the runner going from second to third. The ball is called dead immediately. The runner was declared out but the question was whether or not the runner on third base scores or returns to third base. According to item #13 on the table the activity is: Fair ball touches runner before it touches an infielder or after it passes any infielder except the pitcher and another fielder has a play........5-1-1f

The Awards or Penalties says: Hit runner is out. Batter awarded first base is credited with single. Others return to base occupied at time of interference unless forced by batter-runner.

If I am understanding this correctly, the runner should have scored and not be returned to third base.

Am I missing something?

Yes - the out on the runner from 2B erased the force on the runner on third. Therefore he was not forced. Therefore he returns.

[bob jenkins]

Just to clarify the OP -- R3 had crossed the plate before R2 was hit by the batted ball?

That would be a rare occurrence.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Just to clarify the OP -- R3 had crossed the plate before R2 was hit by the batted ball?

That would be a rare occurrence.

I know this is a FED question but FYI in OBR no run can score on this play.

7.08 Any runner is out when— (f) He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance.

[Matt]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

Yes - the out on the runner from 2B erased the force on the runner on third. Therefore he was not forced. Therefore he returns.

No, he doesn't in FED. He's scored.

Likewise, if you have R1 and R2 (normal nomenclature,) and R2 is around 3B when R1 is hit by a batted ball. R2 is only returned to 3B in FED.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Matt

No, he doesn't in FED. He's scored.

.

Only if he scored before the interference.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Matt

No, he doesn't in FED. He's scored.

I don't believe he was saying the runner had crossed the plate at the time of interference. In my 22 years, I've seen that happen exactly zero times.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

I don't believe he was saying the runner had crossed the plate at the time of interference. In my 22 years, I've seen that happen exactly zero times.

Exactly why I asked for clarification in post #3.

Either way, though, I think the answers have been posted.

and, yes, it is a rule difference from OBR.

[Matt]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

I don't believe he was saying the runner had crossed the plate at the time of interference. In my 22 years, I've seen that happen exactly zero times.

And I was thinking he was implying that.

I've seen it once.