Does the Run Score or Not?

[Matt]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

Yes - the out on the runner from 2B erased the force on the runner on third. Therefore he was not forced. Therefore he returns.

No, he doesn't in FED. He's scored.

Likewise, if you have R1 and R2 (normal nomenclature,) and R2 is around 3B when R1 is hit by a batted ball. R2 is only returned to 3B in FED.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Matt

No, he doesn't in FED. He's scored.

.

Only if he scored before the interference.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Matt

No, he doesn't in FED. He's scored.

I don't believe he was saying the runner had crossed the plate at the time of interference. In my 22 years, I've seen that happen exactly zero times.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

I don't believe he was saying the runner had crossed the plate at the time of interference. In my 22 years, I've seen that happen exactly zero times.

Exactly why I asked for clarification in post #3.

Either way, though, I think the answers have been posted.

and, yes, it is a rule difference from OBR.

[Matt]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

I don't believe he was saying the runner had crossed the plate at the time of interference. In my 22 years, I've seen that happen exactly zero times.

And I was thinking he was implying that.

I've seen it once.