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Old Fri May 10, 2013, 06:11pm
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Originally Posted by jwwashburn View Post
If the guy is not in the game until he throws a pitch then how does it make sense to require him to throw a pitch before he can be replaced? How can he be "replaced" if he is not in the game?
You are totally correct and I was smoking something this morning. Sometimes it pays to put the brain in gear before opening the mouth.
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Old Fri May 10, 2013, 06:36pm
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Joe Maddon got away with almost this

I wonder if the umpires were remembering this 2011 play, which resulted in 3.05(d).
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Old Sun May 12, 2013, 06:25am
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Originally Posted by LilLeaguer View Post
I wonder if the umpires were remembering this 2011 play, which resulted in 3.05(d).
Interesting. I had no idea this rule existed. If this had happened to me in a game, I wouldn't think twice, since the pitcher had already met his obligation by pitching in the previous inning(s).

That said, I doubt 3.05(d) has filtered down to lower levels.
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Old Sun May 12, 2013, 08:57am
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Originally Posted by Manny A View Post
Interesting. I had no idea this rule existed. If this had happened to me in a game, I wouldn't think twice, since the pitcher had already met his obligation by pitching in the previous inning(s).

That said, I doubt 3.05(d) has filtered down to lower levels.
It should have filtered down to every league who uses "OBR, except ..." rules.

It's also an NCAA rule -- I had to enforce it last weekend, and it almost came up in a conference tournament game this weekend. Turns out the (new) defensive coach had made a "projected" substitution, so th eoriginal starter was already out of the game when he crossed the foul line.
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