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Old Wed May 01, 2013, 02:09pm
CT1 CT1 is offline
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Originally Posted by David Emerling View Post
Then let me ask you this: With runners at 1st and 2nd - if the pitcher faked to 2nd but did not break contact with the rubber - and then he turned to throw to 1st - would you apply the same criteria as you would in the 3rd-to-1st maneuver and balk him? [FED]

Not arguing - just asking.
Even with a LHP, I'm having trouble envisioning how he could fake to second without his free foot breaking the back plane of the rubber -- which commits him to either second or home.
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Old Wed May 01, 2013, 02:19pm
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Originally Posted by CT1 View Post
Even with a LHP, I'm having trouble envisioning how he could fake to second without his free foot breaking the back plane of the rubber -- which commits him to either second or home.
Yes, it commits him to 2nd ... but you are not required to throw when you go to 2nd. The play David's talking about would be a full fake to 2nd, without throwing, and then turning 90 degrees and throwing to first, all while keeping the pivot foot on the rubber.
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Old Thu May 02, 2013, 06:06am
CT1 CT1 is offline
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Originally Posted by MD Longhorn View Post
Yes, it commits him to 2nd ... but you are not required to throw when you go to 2nd. The play David's talking about would be a full fake to 2nd, without throwing, and then turning 90 degrees and throwing to first, all while keeping the pivot foot on the rubber.
Then that would be a balk, although any R1 who gets picked on that move probably deserves what he gets.
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