Runner Interference

[KenL.nation]

As the BU, batter pops up to the 1B with no outs. It was near the bag, apparently R1 was unsure. Either he was trying to get out of the way by coming off the bag, or he thought about running. He made contact with 1B. Fielder made the catch anyway, so therefore I allowed the result of the play. Actually my partner allowed it, (F3). Neither bench commented, I felt it was the proper non-call. When we discussed post game, PU thought we missed it. My opinion is take the result of the play, don't look for trouble. Now if the pop was dropped and the contact wasn't intentional, I would kill it and call R1 out. My question is what becomes of the Batter if the dropped fly was in Fair Territory.

[Rich Ives]

You call interference immediately. You do not wait to see the result.

[KenL.nation]

Batter then remains at bat, is it a no-pitch or a strike as a in foul ?

[RPatrino]

Originally Posted by KenL.nation

Batter then remains at bat, is it a no-pitch or a strike as a in foul ?

Let's think about it logically. The batted ball was fair, so it can't be foul. There was a pitch, so it can't be 'no pitch'. Where does that leave the batter to go?

[KenL.nation]

If Rich is correct, and the play is called dead immediately. Where does that leave the Batter ?

[Rich Ives]

On first base.

It was a fair ball.

He wasn't out.

and read 10.05(b )(5).

[RPatrino]

Rich is also correct about placement of the BR. I was trying to get you to answer the question yourself, 1b is the only place you could place the BR in this situation, per rule.

[KenL.nation]

I'm really not sure if the batter stays at bat or gets awarded first base ?

[RPatrino]

Per what rule would the batter remain at bat? He hit a fair batted ball.

[kylejt]

What if the ball is over fair territory when the INT is called, then goes foul?

[RPatrino]

One question at a time, Kyle...lol.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by KenL.nation

I'm really not sure if the batter stays at bat or gets awarded first base ?

6.09(a )

[jicecone]

Originally Posted by kylejt

What if the ball is over fair territory when the INT is called, then goes foul?

When runner interference occurs, that is an immediate dead ball. Because the ball is fair and it become dead, it can never be a foul ball.

Beacuse you are an umpire, we are trying to get you to read the rule book, section 2.0 "Interference; 6.09a "when a batter becomes a runner" and 7.09 "It is interference by a batter or runner"....... OBR rules.

Good luck

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by KenL.nation

I'm really not sure if the batter stays at bat or gets awarded first base ?

R1 committed interference, you call "TIME! That's Interference - runner is out!" You then place the batter on 1st base.

The batter hit a fair ball so he is not punished. R1 committed interference so the ball is immediately dead (you do not wait to make this call). The batter can only go to 1st because the ball is dead.