Ball Hits Runner

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by Rufus

1 Based on the OP did the batted ball not go through, or by, F3 before striking R1? 2 Is it because F4 had an opportunity to make a play on the ball? 3 What if F4 wasn't there, then R1's not out? 4 Does R1 need to be directly behind the fielder making a play on the ball in order to avoid interfering?

Sorry, lot of questions I know and not trying to pick a fight, just trying to understand. Thanks.

To try and answer your questions:

1. Yes, the ball went by F3.
2. Yes, F4 was in position to make a play, and couldn't because the ball hit R1.
3. Yes, if F4 wasn't in position to make a play, then R1 would not be out unless he intentionally contacted the batted ball.
4. If the ball is not deflected by the fielder, then R1 needs to essentially be behind the fielder. If he wasn't behind F3 on this play and he gets hit by an undeflected batted ball, then you haven't met the criteria that the ball went through or by an infielder, and you would have an out.

Of course, that's the call under OBR. Not sure about other rule sets that may prescribe to the old String Theory (does that thing still exist out there?)