[pob14]

Originally Posted by Rufus

Not to make this difficult, or longer than it needs to be, but can someone please explain how the runner is out based on this language in 7.09 (OBR):

This bit of what you quoted:

Originally Posted by Rufus

7.09 (k) It is interference by a batter or a runner when—A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.

Based on the OP did the batted ball not go through, or by, F3 before striking R1? Is it because F4 had an opportunity to make a play on the ball? What if F4 wasn't there, then R1's not out? Does R1 need to be directly behind the fielder making a play on the ball in order to avoid interfering?

Sorry, lot of questions I know and not trying to pick a fight, just trying to understand. Thanks.