Ball Hits Runner

[Spence]

R1. F3 holding him on.

High chopper towards first. F3 is in front of R1. Misses the ball. F4 is there to back him up. Ball hits R1.

Rulebook says out unless it passes or touches an infielder so in my example runner would be safe.

What if it's a player where one infielder dives for the ball and then it hits the runner who was behind him?

Does the dive satisfy the "unless....?"

[Spence]

Hold up. Just saw 7.09 regarding this play.

Looks like runner is out, correct?

[jicecone]

We have some real L O N G Posts , but this is by far the shortest. Correct.

[RPatrino]

Yes

[Rufus]

Not to make this difficult, or longer than it needs to be, but can someone please explain how the runner is out based on this language in 7.09 (OBR):

7.09 (k) It is interference by a batter or a runner when—A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.

Based on the OP did the batted ball not go through, or by, F3 before striking R1? Is it because F4 had an opportunity to make a play on the ball? What if F4 wasn't there, then R1's not out? Does R1 need to be directly behind the fielder making a play on the ball in order to avoid interfering?

Sorry, lot of questions I know and not trying to pick a fight, just trying to understand. Thanks.

[pob14]

Originally Posted by Rufus

Not to make this difficult, or longer than it needs to be, but can someone please explain how the runner is out based on this language in 7.09 (OBR):

This bit of what you quoted:

Originally Posted by Rufus

7.09 (k) It is interference by a batter or a runner when—A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.

Based on the OP did the batted ball not go through, or by, F3 before striking R1? Is it because F4 had an opportunity to make a play on the ball? What if F4 wasn't there, then R1's not out? Does R1 need to be directly behind the fielder making a play on the ball in order to avoid interfering?

Sorry, lot of questions I know and not trying to pick a fight, just trying to understand. Thanks.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Rufus

7.09 (k) It is interference by a batter or a runner when—A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.

See bold.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by Rufus

1 Based on the OP did the batted ball not go through, or by, F3 before striking R1? 2 Is it because F4 had an opportunity to make a play on the ball? 3 What if F4 wasn't there, then R1's not out? 4 Does R1 need to be directly behind the fielder making a play on the ball in order to avoid interfering?

Sorry, lot of questions I know and not trying to pick a fight, just trying to understand. Thanks.

To try and answer your questions:

1. Yes, the ball went by F3.
2. Yes, F4 was in position to make a play, and couldn't because the ball hit R1.
3. Yes, if F4 wasn't in position to make a play, then R1 would not be out unless he intentionally contacted the batted ball.
4. If the ball is not deflected by the fielder, then R1 needs to essentially be behind the fielder. If he wasn't behind F3 on this play and he gets hit by an undeflected batted ball, then you haven't met the criteria that the ball went through or by an infielder, and you would have an out.

Of course, that's the call under OBR. Not sure about other rule sets that may prescribe to the old String Theory (does that thing still exist out there?)