3rd to 1st Move Becomes a Balk

[ozzy6900]

I read an article on the AP news wire. As of next season, the 3rd to 1st move will be a balk. One of the oldest deeks in baseball, which no one had a problem with (until some announcers this past season) will be no more. Personally, I think that if they do this, they better do something about the LHP notorious pick off moves. Why should the LHP's have and edge and RHP's don't. I just can't figure out what is happening with the game anymore.

[scrounge]

I'm fine with it disappearing. Silly move that almost never fooled anyone above 13 and was mostly just a waste of time. Why have different rules for 3B and 1B about feinting and not throwing?

[jicecone]

If your stupid enough to get picked off that way you shouldn't be in the game. Unfortunately most announcers are less smarter than the player getting picked off.

Oz, at the MLB level it stopped being a game a while ago. It's just entertainment now.

[David B]

[QUOTE=jicecone;874645
Oz, at the MLB level it stopped being a game a while ago. It's just entertainment now.[/QUOTE]

Great point - attend a game today and the players are so spoiled, don't mingle with the fans, its all about entertaining.

And get a hangnail and they sit out for three games ...

Baseball as we know it is long gone ...

Thanks
David

[Steven Tyler]

At the MLB level, it is probably primarily used to get the batter, or runners to tip off a play the offense might attempt. They might want to keep the runner tighter at 1B if the F3 is playing behind the runner. Who cares?

[grunewar]

Originally Posted by ozzy6900

I read an article on the AP news wire.

Rule Change! Third-to-first fake pickoff is now officially a balk | Big League Stew - Yahoo! Sports

[bluehair]

If its SO official, why can't I find any rule change announcement on the MLB web site, nor find the language of the change anywhere?

[briancurtin]

It was magically beamed to Ozzy.

If you Google "mlb balk change" the whole first page is about it.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by scrounge

Why have different rules for 3B and 1B about feinting and not throwing?

The rules are written to maintain some balance between the offense and the defense. If pitchers were allowed to feint to first base to pin runners there, the defense would be at a greater advantage because less runners could get into scoring position. So that's why the rulesmakers decided to prohibit feints to first, but not other bases.

It's similar to the foul bunt rule. Without it, batters could conceivably bunt away pitches that weren't in their wheelhouse. That gave the offense too much of an advantage, so we have a rule calling for an out when a batter bunts the ball foul with two strikes.

[egj13]

This rule has always essentially been there (has been a case play in the rule book itself as long as I can remember) but it wasn't being called consistently so they just did away with the possibility of it ever happening.

[jicecone]

Originally Posted by egj13

This rule has always essentially been there (has been a case play in the rule book itself as long as I can remember) but it wasn't being called consistently so they just did away with the possibility of it ever happening.

SAY WHAT? Are you talking about the 3rd to 1st move? If you are the you didn't 'jump off your soapbox". you fell off. Please mention ONE game wher this wasn't called consistently, one. in alomost 30 years of umpiring, i can't recall ANYONE blowing this call, in games I have done or watched in person or on TV.

[Mrumpiresir]

Any umpire worth a damn can call this easily. If F1 steps and fakes to 3rd and clears the rubber and then fakes or throw to first, he has not violated a rule. If he steps to third and is is still in contact with the rubber and in the same motion turns and feints to first, he has balked. If he doesn't step toward third in his fake, he has balked.

I find this an entertaining part of the game and yes, I have seen it work.

I still contend there is no reason to change this rule.

Someone is dumbing down the game of baseball.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by egj13

This rule has always essentially been there (has been a case play in the rule book itself as long as I can remember) but it wasn't being called consistently so they just did away with the possibility of it ever happening.

I'm not sure what you're talking about. I have never EVER seen an umpire call a balk on the move. So I'm not sure where you think the call was done inconsistently.

Well, maybe untrained umpires in youth ball have a problem with it. But there has never been any inconsistency with MLB umpires, in my mind, because they never call anything.

[bluehair]

Originally Posted by briancurtin

If you Google "mlb balk change" the whole first page is about it.

I have read several "reports" of the rule change. This one is amusing:
End the balk rule now - Bless You Boys

I want to see the wording.
Does the rule change prohibit all feins to 3B or just when 1B is occupied?
What about when 2B is occupied?
Does F5 need to be holding R3 on (as F3 is required to at 1B) to receive a throw-over ?
Are feins to all bases now prohibited?

Until we see the wording, we can't tell what is to be applied/mis-applied.

[Manny A]

Wait a minute. From the article that was referenced above:

"Under a rule change imposed by Major League Baseball for this season, pitchers can no longer fake a pickoff throw to third base."

So, are they making ALL fakes to third base illegal? Or just the ones that are followed with a subsequent move to first base?