INT on a foul ball

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by UmpTTS43

Really? And a clinic would teach me what? I know the rules concerning situations such as these and how to apply them. This is one of those plays that happen very rarely and makes it such that there are exceptions to the literal rule where there are and have been official interpretations concerning these situations.

U1 called INT and signaled IFF. Fair/foul status was yet to be determined on the batted ball. IFF is only in effect on a fair ball.

Similar sitch. R3. Pop up near 3rd base. R3 interfers with F5 attempting catch. You make the INT call but keep the ball live until final status of the ball is determined. If the ball is fair, R3 out, BR awarded first. If ball is foul, R3 out, batter returns to bat.

It's clear you won't believe me - that's why I suggested asking at a clinic ... or ask someone you think should know. There's so much wrong with the rest of this post I don't even know where to begin.

Two things though, regarding your similar sitch. 1) If the ball rolled foul, would you allow F5 to pick up the ball, throw it to another base, and make a play on another runner? I ask that because that's what happened in the OP, and you seem to be indicating they did nothing wrong.
2) It's interesting that in your sitch, with a fair ball you have 1 out; with a foul ball you also have 1 out. yet on the OP you had 2. How is that again?