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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Jul 06, 2012, 04:51pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by smbbcoach99 View Post
Runners on 1st and 2nd 0 outs. Pop up to ss, umpire calls and signals "infield fly, batter is out". When are the runners "free"to advance" and do they need to tag up?

thanks. Basic question I know. Was at my sons game and it was called different than I thought. the case book and rules book dont mention this (at least I didnt find it)

Thanks
Just like any other fly ball that may or not be caught. If fly ball is caught, the runner(s) can advance at their own risk after the ball is touched and the runner(s) has tagged the base at TOP. If the fly ball is not caught, the runner(s) may advance at any time at their own risk.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jul 07, 2012, 12:37am
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Originally Posted by nopachunts View Post
Just like any other fly ball that may or not be caught. If fly ball is caught, the runner(s) can advance at their own risk after the ball is touched and the runner(s) has tagged the base at TOP. If the fly ball is not caught, the runner(s) may advance at any time at their own risk.
No No! The tag-up must be at (or after) the time the ball is touched by the fuielder.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jul 07, 2012, 06:19am
CT1 CT1 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Ives View Post
No No! The tag-up must be at (or after) the time the ball is touched by the fuielder.
I'm sure he meant "tagged the base occupied at TOP."
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jul 07, 2012, 10:42am
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Originally Posted by CT1 View Post
I'm sure he meant "tagged the base occupied at TOP."
Then he should have said it. There are many lurkers and we don't want them to misunderstand the rule now do we - they might yell bad things at you at a game if they don't.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jul 07, 2012, 11:24am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Ives View Post
Then he should have said it. There are many lurkers and we don't want them to misunderstand the rule now do we - they might yell bad things at you at a game if they don't.
But if I correct someone's terminology, you tell me that I knew what they meant and to shut up. Can't have it both ways.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jul 07, 2012, 11:33am
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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
But if I correct someone's terminology, you tell me that I knew what they meant and to shut up. Can't have it both ways.
Yes he can. He's a coach.
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jul 07, 2012, 11:33am
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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
But if I correct someone's terminology, you tell me that I knew what they meant and to shut up. Can't have it both ways.
Rich being Rich
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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jul 08, 2012, 09:06am
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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
But if I correct someone's terminology, you tell me that I knew what they meant and to shut up. Can't have it both ways.
It wasn't the terminology he got wrong. It was the requirement. Significant difference.

YOU may know, or think you know, what he meant, but the lurkers will just see the wrong requirement. Not good.

You've been turing into a real something-or-other lately - feeling OK?
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jul 08, 2012, 03:02pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Ives View Post
It wasn't the terminology he got wrong. It was the requirement. Significant difference.

YOU may know, or think you know, what he meant, but the lurkers will just see the wrong requirement. Not good.

You've been turing into a real something-or-other lately - feeling OK?
Yeah, I've been defending you on the boards for your vast knowledge of the rules, giving you many compliments, etc. I'm really turning into a something or other. Oh, I'm feeling pretty good considering I just had heart surgery last month.
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 09, 2012, 01:41pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Ives View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
But if I correct someone's terminology, you tell me that I knew what they meant and to shut up. Can't have it both ways.
It wasn't the terminology he got wrong. It was the requirement. Significant difference.

YOU may know, or think you know, what he meant, but the lurkers will just see the wrong requirement. Not good.
Rich, it seems to me that you misread nopachunts' post:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Ives View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by nopachunts View Post
Just like any other fly ball that may or not be caught. If fly ball is caught, the runner(s) can advance at their own risk after the ball is touched and the runner(s) has tagged the base at TOP. If the fly ball is not caught, the runner(s) may advance at any time at their own risk.
No No! The tag-up must be at (or after) the time the ball is touched by the fuielder.
The phrase you highlighted needs to be read together with the part before it, especially, "the runner(s) can advance at their own risk after the ball is touched." No, it wasn't absolutely clear, but I'm pretty sure CT1 had it right:

Quote:
Originally Posted by CT1 View Post
I'm sure he meant "tagged the base occupied at TOP."
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 09, 2012, 11:22pm
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To RI and CT1,
I did mean the base occupied at TOP and the base tagged after the IFF is touched. My bad for not making myself more clear.
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