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Fair enough.
![]() I think my problem is that I UNDER-thought it my first year as an umpire, and assumed that "up to the base" meant that if the ball hit foul before 1B it would be the PU's call when the ball eventually passed the base. And since nobody corrected me until the other night, I'm guessing a lot of other umpires are thinking the same way. |
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Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
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