Does it behoove the B/R...?

[Matt]

Originally Posted by SAump

No infraction, no appeal. I got that and I thank you for the info. Is this new interpretation suppose to make things easier or more difficult for the umpire?

If a batter's failure to acquire 1st base prior to the 3rd out were an infraction, then I could accept that appeal and wipe off that run at the end of the ballgame like other similar rules allow. Baseball remains very simple. There I go looking for an infraction, but I have been down that road. Let me see if I understand you and can follow your logic, and take this shorter route back towards a simple game.

My Ex. OP. R1 touches 1st base prior to 3rd out tag of R2. Score fielder's choice, score run, score single, score RBI. See, someone is watching and each player has a simple option to rule upon.

Your Ex. OP. R1 touches 1st base after R2 is tagged. Score run, score error and score fielder's choice, score base never reached, score no credit for RBI. See, now I have to reinvent the current method of scoring my ballgame. Why does BR have to run the bases after a walk, or home run? Can't you just give them credit too.

I think I prefer my way, or the current way of doing things. But if I must travel down this road and this is the new rule and I accept it, how do I connect a base never reached by a non-forced runner, to base never acquired by the batter? IOW, how do I score that last play of the half inning.

Please keep it simple for me.

Go read the rules. BR is scored LOB.