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In regards to throwing only to an occupied base, runner on first only and has a HUGE lead. Does the pitcher have to throw to first or can they throw to second or anywhere between first and second when the runner goes?
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"Contact does not mean a foul, a foul means contact." -Me |
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If the runner is judged to be advancing, then the pitcher must throw to 1B if his move is there, or he may continue to 2B (without hesitation at 1B) and throw or feint to unoccupied 2B since he is now making a play on an advancing runner. A throw to F4 away from the base and away from the runner is legal.
Frequently, the pitcher makes the move toward 1B and upon seeing the runner has broken to 2B, F1 continues his motion without interruption toward 2B---stepping there but not delivering the throw or even making any arm motion to throw. That, too, is legal, and F1 may follow that legal step and chase the runner if, indeed, the step was judged to have been toward 2B and not 1B. Freix |
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It depends???
My understanding, and I've never seen it allowed even in the majors, if you make a move to first, you must throw to first. As an ump told me, how do you know the runner wasn't going to bluff and run 1/2 way and return, you just can't turn to first and not throw it.
Of course if you step off before throwing you become a defensive player and are free to do what you want. I've had a hard time with rule 8.05 If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when_(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play; It seems to say it's OK but I've never found an umpire that allows it. |
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Re: It depends???
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Stop looking -- you've found one (and probably more) here. |
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TEE, I'm not....
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Lets even the count at 3+.LOL I went from 5'8" 170 to 198, last years fechs would not fit, screw the 100 plus clams, I lost the gut...... [Edited by chris s on Jun 16th, 2003 at 07:38 PM] |
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