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Old Thu Sep 08, 2011, 10:44pm
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Join Date: Sep 2011
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I am a bit messed up with this one too. If the runner is NOT required to slide and he is running in the baseline how does this qualify as interference. The rule states he must "illegally alters the actions of a fielder in the immediate act of making a play." I agree that his action altered the play, but he is not required to slide and he was within the baseline, so why is that considered illegally altering the play. My understanding was that a runner had to intentionally interfere with a throw for their to be interference.

I am new here, so don't beat me up too bad.

Jim
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