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The lengths to which some people here go to defend the indefensible never ceases to amaze me. How dare anyone criticize a CWS or Super Regional or Regional umpire! |
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Not in this case. If it did, then theoretically, every runner is still at liability to be put out at all times.
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REALLY? You don't think R1 could be put out if he passed the base and F6 had the ball? No wonder you are completely misunderstanding the situation.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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2. YES (wrong guess) - which is the ONLY reason interference is a possibility.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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I would start this discussion by simply posting the NCAA definition of interference found in rule 2 and base your arguments for or against on that. If you are looking for a true discussion and growth, start there.
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Can you cite the rule or just the "esteemed rules guru." This is an unusual play when many rules some at odds with others come into play. I don't think it is as cut and dried as you make it out to be.
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Tony Carilli |
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Tony,
Well if you're going to try to have an intelligent conversation about this sitch instead of getting into pissing contests with other people.... Heck, why not?! I happened to be watching the game when it happened. My initial reaction was WTF!?!? The TV coverage was abysmal and I was quite surprised that Esmay didn't make more of an argument. I have read the relevant rules and the available interps, though NCAA-specific interps are rare. Based on the rules, I believe the batter had become a runner before the action occurred which resulted in an infraction being called. Therefore, I believe that, by rule, the umpire must have judged intentional interference in order to have a "rules supported" call of interference. There is also the question of was there a "play" and is it proper to call an out for interference if there was no "play" to be interfered with. I lean to ward the camp that would say there was no "play" (because there was no runner in "jeopardy" at the time of throw), and, generally, unless there is an out to be had, the interference does not result in an out. (a la return toss interference). However, I could see a case for calling an out if the offense were judged to have intentionally interfered in order to create an unintended advantage (e.g., force a bad throw to allow a runner to advance an extra base). So, if the umpire were convinced that the batter-runner deliberately timed his initial advance to 1B to hinder the catcher, AND the catcher was, in fact, hindered, I suppose you could make a case for the call. That's the best I can come up with for "making sense" of the call. I do not believe I would have called what he did, but I've made mistaken calls myself, so I might be wrong. JM BTW, I couldn't tell from the video or any of the accounts what they did with the R1 (who might have ended up at 3B?). Does anyone know?
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Finally, be courteous, impartial and firm, and so compel respect from all. |
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Since, the crew did ultimately rule interference, r1 was returned to first.
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Tony Carilli |
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