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Place the Runners
R2.
Groundball to F6. R2 retreats to the 2nd base bag. F6 throws into the stands trying to get BR. Does R2 go to third or home? Not a coach. Not a fan with an agenda. Just want some clarification for my own knowledge. I've always used the "base going to plus one." So would the base "going to " by R2 by 2nd which means he ends up at 3rd? |
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R2 would get home.
BTW, the base he is going to is 3rd no matter where he is actually running to. This is a two base award for a thrown ball out of play. Peace
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Let us get into "Good Trouble." ----------------------------------------------------------- Charles Michael “Mick” Chambers (1947-2010) |
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+1. There's no such this as "1+1" in awarding bases. For throws going out of play, it's a two base award. If the throw is the first play by an infielder, the bases are awarded from their base at the time of the pitch. If the throw is by an outfielder or a subsequent play by an infielder, it's two bases from the time of the throw.
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This happened yesterday in the Reds/Brewers game and was handled correctly (of course) by the umps.
Baseball Video Highlights & Clips | CIN@MIL: Lucroy scores on an error by Janish - Video | MLB.com: Multimedia |
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![]() I didn't notice that the play started with R2. No idea why that runner stopped at 3B, as I'm sure he was told, "you, score!"
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Cheers, mb |
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The good thing about a dead ball is you have plenty of time to get it right.
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