1st to 3rd PO MOVE

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by Simply The Best

Originally Posted by Simply The Best
Why not call it properly? If the foot is engaged - balk. If not, no balk.
Then it is probable which is why I said what I did.

Hint: There are many, many others who have seen F1 feign to 3rd in contact with the rubber eventually turning and throwing to 1st. Try it. It's easy! Call the game, don't succumb to accepting carte blanche umpire mythologies regardless of how often they are repeated!

Let's see here...I've been doing this for 25 years, and calling this play the EXACT same way it's called at every level of baseball throughout the entire world. Not one time has a coach or player even uttered a syllable in protest of such a call. Now you come along and tell ALL of us that we've been doing it wrong all this time. Wow, you must be the BEST umpire EVER!

I never accepted any "myths" about the game of baseball. This is not a myth, it's physics. In order to perform the move you describe, the pitcher would have to feign to 3rd, drag his pivot foot on the ground as he spins around to throw to 1st, and I've NEVER ONCE seen a pitcher do this. They 100% of the time lift their pivot foot off the rubber when turning to throw to 1st. I will let you know the VERY FIRST TIME I see someone stay in total contact with the rubber on this move.