Valid pitching appearance?

[MD Longhorn]

I have to admit ... of all the rules in all the codes of softball or baseball, this rule is the dumbest. Well, 2nd dumbest. This rule can thank the LL poof rule for letting it avoid being the dumbest.

[pruett3]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

I have to admit ... of all the rules in all the codes of softball or baseball, this rule is the dumbest. Well, 2nd dumbest. This rule can thank the LL poof rule for letting it avoid being the dumbest.

I always thought the 3rd to 1st move by a right-handed pitcher was the dumbest. It's clearly deceiving the runner. I've never understood why a lefty has to throw to 1st but a righty doesn't have to throw to 3rd (on the same move).

[ManInBlue]

Originally Posted by pruett3

I always thought the 3rd to 1st move by a right-handed pitcher was the dumbest. It's clearly deceiving the runner. I've never understood why a lefty has to throw to 1st but a righty doesn't have to throw to 3rd (on the same move).

Might be because the rules say you can't feint a throw to 1B while in contact with the rubber. It says nothing about feinting to 2B or 3B other than you have to step in the direction of the base. RHP can't jump-turn and not throw to 1B, but a LHP can do the same move to 3B and not throw...

Not the "same move" - 1B is treated differently

A LHP raising his free foot straight up and coming to 1B is deceiving to the runner too. A pick off move is designed to deceive the runner.

[pruett3]

It seems like the same move to me. Just to a different base. I understand what the rule says. Why is 1st base treated differently than any other base?

[johnnyg08]

I really don't know other than that's just the way the rule is written. Maybe because that's where the most runners are as well as the move SB attempts...so they do it to keep the game fair for the offense and defense?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by pruett3

It seems like the same move to me. Just to a different base. I understand what the rule says. Why is 1st base treated differently than any other base?

It's been that way for over a century. (First, feints to all bases were allowed, then no feints were allowed (this lasted for only a short time -- 1 year?), then the current rule -- no feints to first.)

I know that doesn't answer "why" it's this way -- but I don't see it changing soon.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by pruett3

Why is 1st base treated differently than any other base?

1. Second base is the farthest from the catcher, which makes it the easiest base to steal.
2. Reaching 2B puts a runner in scoring position, so it's important to the offense to get him there and important to the defense to keep him on 1B.
3. That's why 1B is (almost always) the only base where the runner is held on.
4. More runners reach 1B than any other base.

All of these points apply only to 1B, which explains why it's treated differently. The intent of the rules is to balance offense and defense with respect to advancing a runner to 2B.

[bluehair]

Originally Posted by mbyron

More runners reach 1B than any other base.

I hope you have statistics to prove that bold statement

[MrUmpire]

Originally Posted by mbyron

1. Second base is the farthest from the catcher, which makes it the easiest base to steal.
2. Reaching 2B puts a runner in scoring position, so it's important to the offense to get him there and important to the defense to keep him on 1B.
3. That's why 1B is (almost always) the only base where the runner is held on.
4. More runners reach 1B than any other base.

All of these points apply only to 1B, which explains why it's treated differently. The intent of the rules is to balance offense and defense with respect to advancing a runner to 2B.

Evans has explained that his research indicates that even the early rules makers understood that scoring was more exciting than not scoring. The rules regarding first actually lean heavily towards the offense to protect the runner and provide a greater chance of scoring.