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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 09:51am
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Batter-runner not proceding directly to first base.

Hi,

I was doing base (2-man) at a local game. No runners on and none down. The batter lined one just to the 3rd baseman's left. He dove for it and the ball came out of his glove and he scrambled to collect it to throw to 1st.

The batter thought that he had been caught and turned towards the dugout to leave the field when his teammates yelled for him to run.

The 3rd baseman in his haste messed up the throw and it sailed over the first baseman's head into dead ball territory.

I called time and said that the batter now only 50% of the way to first should go to 2nd. The fielders all started 'complaining' that because the batter had not gone directly to first base but had instead headed towards the dugout he should be out. "Just like if he bunts" (Apparently)

The plate umpire came over asking me if placing the runner at 2 was correct (I think it was more to placate the fielders then actually confirm or change a decision) and after I explained why I felt the runner should stay at 2 he confirmed that the batter was safe at two and returned behind the plate.

Now I have gone through rule 6 to see if there is anything I missed but I don't see anything that says the batter is forced to advance to one. Is there such a rule? Did I give the correct decision?

Regards
SAWolf
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 11:20am
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As long as the batter did not enter dead ball area, you made the correct choice. This is why batters should always "run it out until put out".

And now, I'm sure that we will be hearing from the people who just seem to love calling a player out for abandonment.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 11:30am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ozzy6900 View Post

And now, I'm sure that we will be hearing from the people who just seem to love calling a player out for abandonment.
I think you mean desertion. HTBT.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 12:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SAWolf View Post
Hi,

I was doing base (2-man) at a local game. No runners on and none down. The batter lined one just to the 3rd baseman's left. He dove for it and the ball came out of his glove and he scrambled to collect it to throw to 1st.

The batter thought that he had been caught and turned towards the dugout to leave the field when his teammates yelled for him to run.

The 3rd baseman in his haste messed up the throw and it sailed over the first baseman's head into dead ball territory.

I called time and said that the batter now only 50% of the way to first should go to 2nd. The fielders all started 'complaining' that because the batter had not gone directly to first base but had instead headed towards the dugout he should be out. "Just like if he bunts" (Apparently)

The plate umpire came over asking me if placing the runner at 2 was correct (I think it was more to placate the fielders then actually confirm or change a decision) and after I explained why I felt the runner should stay at 2 he confirmed that the batter was safe at two and returned behind the plate.

Now I have gone through rule 6 to see if there is anything I missed but I don't see anything that says the batter is forced to advance to one. Is there such a rule? Did I give the correct decision?

Regards
SAWolf
The defense could neither catch the ball nor throw the ball, and now they want the umpire to bail them out? Lah me.

Leave the BR at second.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 01:45pm
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Correct call. Before reaching first, he must enter dead ball territory. Even if he bunts. OBR created a recent exception (6.09(b) comment) for a dropped third strike, in which the batter not running to first is out when he leaves the 13-foot-radius circle surrounding home plate.

OBR 7.08(a)(2) and FED 8-4-2-p make abandonment ('progressing a reasonable distance to the dugout acting like he is out') by a runner after touching first base a judgment call.

And if the misinformed runner thinks he was the third out and heads for his defensive position, . . .
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 02:02pm
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Good call.
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