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Old Sun Feb 21, 2010, 01:28pm
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Flip what I said two posts above. Just re-read my own words.

Less than 2 outs, if play is made on runner, and he is safe, this is the base he is returned to when enforcing INT.

If 2 outs, same ruling, just can't have runs score if 3rd out is on B/R before he reaches first or on a force play elsewhere in the infield.

Most of the time this will happen home to first but theoretically it could happen at any base. Just not plausible.
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Old Sun Feb 21, 2010, 02:11pm
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I was going to ask this question in another thread but I'll just add it on here.
I gave a presentation at a winter baseball clinic recently on the running lane. I used alot of the material in Carl Childress(my personal umpiring hero) 2004
book The Usual Suspects. That material talks about the running lane being created in 1882 and that at the time the foul line ran directly through the middle of both first & third base.
Two questions for someone who has the knowledge:
1) When was the foul line(actually fair line) moved to the edge of the base?
2) When they did that did they compensate for the 90 degree angle at home
and move second to keep the diamond a perfect square?
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Old Sun Feb 21, 2010, 02:18pm
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TussAgee11: Well, you said, "or any other base," and the J/R (in the specific case of BR INT before reaching 1B, not in the case of generic INT by a runner) restricts the intervening play to a failed attempt to get the runner from 3B scoring.

It's not likely to happen, but if the batter bunted, the defense played on R2 at 3B but R2 was safe, and then the BR interfered with the throw and was out before reaching 1B, R2 would have to return to 2B.
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