Balk Talk

[johnnyg08]

A balk is a balk FED or OBR...the difference in FED for the most part is that nothing can happened after the balk. The pitcher must gain distance and direction to first base. In the 3B to 1B move, 3B must be occupied and before the move to 1B the pitcher must disengage the rubber before throwing to 1B...basically he can't feint to 3B and spin to 1B all in one motion. At least I think that's what you're talking about in your post.

[UmpJM]

Lapopez,

1. I, in general, I find FED balk rules a bit "pickier" than OBR rules. You are technically correct that under FED rules, actions which would be considered balks with runners on base are treated as "illegal pitches" with no runners on base - and penalized by a ball added to the batter's count.

In my experience, it is unusual for an umpire to "see" one of these infractions when there are no runners.

johnnyg's assertion that "...A balk is a balk FED or OBR..." is patently incorrect. There are a number of actions which are NOT a balk in OBR that ARE a balk in FED. There is also one action that IS a balk in OBR but is NOT a balk in FED.

His assertion that the ball is immediately dead upon a balk in FED (unlike OBR, where the ball may or may not become dead depending on what happens next) is correct.

2. I would agree that the pitcher would have had to get within "...approximately 5' of the pitcher's plate..." in order to be "on or astride", so the wording is a bit superfluous. I was told by Kyle McNeeley that the intent of the rule is to prohibit the pitcher from stepping on the "dirt circle" of the mound (a la NCAA) without the ball. The "approx. 5' " language was put in to accommodate schools with fields that have "skin" infields.

3. This is the one action which IS a balk in OBR and is NOT a balk in FED. OBR rules explicitly prohibit the F1 from remaining engaged on a "3rd to 1st" move, while FED rules explicitly permit it. Despite johnnyg'a assertion to the contrary.

If the pitcher does choose to remain engaged, he must THROW to 1B - not merely feint - and a legal step is to 1B is required.

JM

[Lapopez]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

3. ... while FED rules explicitly permit it.

Would you please refer me to this? Thanks.

[UmpJM]

Lapopez,

FED (2009) Case Play: 6.2.4 Situation C: Ruling.

JM

[Lapopez]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

Lapopez,

FED (2009) Case Play: 6.2.4 Situation C: Ruling.

JM

Thanks. I had just found it in Rules by Topic. I'm good with the first 3--Probably more tomorrow.

[johnnyg08]

thanks for pointing out what I failed to properly articulate in words...i need to continue to improve there...on the field I think I do a pretty good job (while always trying to improve)...maybe I'm reading #3 differently than you are reading it. I guess my assertion was leaning more toward that it can't be all one motion (move to 3B, and in the same motion spin and throw to 1B)...in other words, a all-in-one motion spin move would be illegal in FED too...no?

[dash_riprock]

As UmpJM said, FED allows F1 to throw to 1st while still engaged but he must step there first. Stepping to 3rd then to 1st is not going to be one continuous motion.

Under other codes, a step towards 1st is not required because F1 must be disengaged to make the throw. At that point, he's an infielder.