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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:00am
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Then as stated above, this is a fair batted ball that has gone out of play and all runners are awarded two bases from time of pitch.

BTW. What did the umpires finally rule?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:03am
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Hitter was placed on second. Runner on second was placed at home (scored).
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:07am
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so they got it right?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:15am
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Yes they did in the end but they initially were going to place runners at 1st and 3rd. My discussion with them centered mainly around the runner at second that should be placed at home since we were running on the pitchers first movement (3-2, 2outs) and the runner reached third prior to the play being over/ball knocked out of play. In the end they talked about it and made the correct call. I will have to let them know next game they did a good job on that play.

Last edited by newmdref; Fri Apr 17, 2009 at 12:22pm.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:17am
Stop staring at me swan.
 
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you do understand that your reason is not why your runner was allowed to score though right?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:28am
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Yes I do. But in a moment when I'm not sure myself what the ruling should be, I've got to challange you guys with some "Reasonable" argument that might initiate a second thought in your mind or a second discussion. This second discussion is what unltimately brought about the correct call, in this case. Doesn't always work that way though.

Last edited by newmdref; Fri Apr 17, 2009 at 11:31am.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:35am
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{this post deleted by me as being obviated by further discussion--I should have refreshed before posting}

Last edited by celebur; Fri Apr 17, 2009 at 11:40am.
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