NF Balk rule

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Fritz

He throws to 2nd? Has the runner already taken off? If the runner is still at 1st, you have a balk for throwing to an unoccupied and there being no play. But let's say he steps off in the manner you describe and throws to first. Explain your rationale for a balk call when the DC says the pitcher was simply and properly disengaging from the rubber.

No you don't. He stepped off first, so he's an infielder and can throw wherever he wishes.

I don't buy the idea that lifting his pivot foot off really high is simulating a pitch. Runners should go back to the base when the pivot foot moves. I'm not balking that. That confers an advantage only if the runner's an idiot.

The rules specify that disengaging the rubber involves moving the pivot foot directly back behind the rubber. It doesn't say how hight the knee is allowed to go as F1 steps off.