Two Balk Questions-OBR

[Paul L]

Okay, now I'm confused. My interpretation is that the pitcher (on the rubber with an R1) may legally raise his non-pivot foot straight up before making a motion to first or the plate (is this the "balance point"?), and then throw to either first or home.

The only balk rule implicated here, I think, is OBR 8:05(a): "If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when - (a) The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes any motion naturally associated with his ptich and fails to make such delivery."


I thought the phrase "naturally associated with his pitch" was interpreted to mean any movement during his delivery that moved some part of his body (not counting the head) toward home. Meaning that merely lifting the non-pivot cleats off the ground was not sufficient to commit the pitcher to pitch. But if a shoulder or a hip or a knee or a foot made any significant (hello judgment!) motion toward home, then a pickoff attempt would be a balk.

This is why runners who take off for second with the first motion (lifting the foot) can get picked off. And if they go when the back of the knee buckles, they would really be jumping the gun.

The Evans balk video is not terribly specific about this, but does say that leaning toward home before going to first is a balk. He also says the knees will bend whether he is legally going to home or first. And he says that head movement is not considered the start of the delivery to the batter.

So what, if anything, is wrong or problematical about my interpretation? Any FED difference?