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Old Mon Jul 28, 2008, 04:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
It's a balk because of "lifts foot as going to home (sic)". As I read it, the lift was toward the "balance point" before F1 turned and threw to first.
I guess we're reading it differently. I read it as a pitcher lifting his foot and beginning to "swing" toward first in a continuous motion. There was no mention of F1 "hanging" his knee to a balance point, nor was there a mention made of initial rotation of the free foot toward the plate.............


Tim.
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Old Tue Jul 29, 2008, 08:31am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BigUmp56
I guess we're reading it differently. I read it as a pitcher lifting his foot and beginning to "swing" toward first in a continuous motion. There was no mention of F1 "hanging" his knee to a balance point, nor was there a mention made of initial rotation of the free foot toward the plate.............


Tim.
Under your "reading" of the play, I agree -- and that also explains the rule to LAUmpire.

If the left foot (non-pivot foot) moves "immediately" toward first (as the knee and left hip also open toward first), then the pick-off is legal -- even though the left foot lifts first and the cleats clear the gorund.

If the left foot (and knee, and the hips stay closed) first moves toward third, then F1 cannot legally throw to first.

It's a debate that has raged since Al Gore invented the internet -- and all becuase of differeing views of the play in reader's mind's eyes of the words "lifts his foot."
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