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B: Please tell me how he can do that without A) lifting his left foot first, or B) stepping toward first. |
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Thanks,
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Thanks for the quick and succinct answer to my question. This tells me everything I need to know about your post. Regards, |
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As usual, a bunch of umpires can't agree on what constitutes a balk, or can't seem to explain why something isn't a balk.
So, please try to explain how a right-hander lifting one's left, or lead foot, WITH ONLY A RUNNER AT FIRST, without delivering a pitch, is not deception, and therefore a balk. |
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Much like Tim C used to play lawyer with the the ol' "rub dirt on the white of the mitt and it isn't white anymore and therefore legal". Traditionally, it is lifting the foot AND stepping towards the base that has to be satisfied. With lefties, it is almost impossible for them to lift their leg and NOT balk because lifting it causes the foot to go towards first base slightly. But, we don't play lawyer on that one, thus, we are not going to play lawyer on the righty lifting his foot and stepping directly towards first base. It IS a legal move, always has been, end of discussion. |
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Tim. |
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"Please stand here and show me how you can go from a set to stepping toward 1st base without lifting your foot. If you can, I will agree with you and call a balk on the pitcher."Not one coach has been able to do it in almost 30 years. I give you the same option - film it and post it and I'm sure that we all will consider it.
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When in doubt, bang 'em out! Ozzy |
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If the left foot (non-pivot foot) moves "immediately" toward first (as the knee and left hip also open toward first), then the pick-off is legal -- even though the left foot lifts first and the cleats clear the gorund. If the left foot (and knee, and the hips stay closed) first moves toward third, then F1 cannot legally throw to first. It's a debate that has raged since Al Gore invented the internet -- and all becuase of differeing views of the play in reader's mind's eyes of the words "lifts his foot." |
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Great!
Bob:
Thanks for clarification. I tried to get LA Umpire Guy to define exactly what he meant and I recognized that he was not talking about what I thought he was . . . We all know through the JEA and Evans e-mails answers, Roders's kind answers via e-mail, Paronto's notes and the NFHS Case Book that a right handed pitcher with R1 only can indeed pick off at first base while in contact with the pitcher's plate. As long as the movement with the left foot is distinct, quick and directional there is no problem. The problem lies when the RH F1 rasies his knee before going to first. Simply lifting the "cleats" off the ground DOES NOT commit F1 to pitch . . . he, obviously, can still go to first on the pickoff as long as he establishes the three requirments listed above. I was confused as to the verbiaged in the posts above. Thanks again, Regards, |
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Balk 101
Okay, now I'm confused. My interpretation is that the pitcher (on the rubber with an R1) may legally raise his non-pivot foot straight up before making a motion to first or the plate (is this the "balance point"?), and then throw to either first or home.
The only balk rule implicated here, I think, is OBR 8:05(a): "If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when - (a) The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes any motion naturally associated with his ptich and fails to make such delivery." I thought the phrase "naturally associated with his pitch" was interpreted to mean any movement during his delivery that moved some part of his body (not counting the head) toward home. Meaning that merely lifting the non-pivot cleats off the ground was not sufficient to commit the pitcher to pitch. But if a shoulder or a hip or a knee or a foot made any significant (hello judgment!) motion toward home, then a pickoff attempt would be a balk. This is why runners who take off for second with the first motion (lifting the foot) can get picked off. And if they go when the back of the knee buckles, they would really be jumping the gun. The Evans balk video is not terribly specific about this, but does say that leaning toward home before going to first is a balk. He also says the knees will bend whether he is legally going to home or first. And he says that head movement is not considered the start of the delivery to the batter. So what, if anything, is wrong or problematical about my interpretation? Any FED difference? |
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So, try this: Suppose BR missed first on a double. Time is called. The defense wants to appeal. RH F1 takes the rubber and the ball is put back in play. F1 asumes a set position (why? who cares!). F1 turns, steps (step means lifts the foot slightly and puts in down in a position closer to) to first and throws the ball for the appeal. That's approximately the move he can make from the rubber on a pick-off. Any earlier / additionl motion would prohibit F1 from throwing to first. |
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A. Balk. Throw has to have the possibility of getting the runner out. Throw does not reach the cutout area of the dirt and therefore could not get the runner out. Ball can be thrown wild and past the base, but has to at least reach that area and first base to be a legitament throw. If throw reaches the first baseman, he/she has also to be in a position to make a play on the runner or you have a balk.
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