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Wed Jul 02, 2008, 11:06am
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Would Fed rule any differently if the INT was an obvious attempt to break up a double play? For example, what if an R1 had been stealing on the pitch, and R3 grabbed F5's glove just before the ball hit the glove over foul territory and just as R1 was sliding into 2B?
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! 
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