Once and for all--INT on foul pop

[aceholleran]

I don't have a Jacksa tome, nor time to unearth an interp. So I am going to this august body for your input. Assume MLB rules.

R3, 1 out.

B1 hits popup near 3B line. F5 draws a bead on the rock. R3 wanders off the base and unintentionally interferes with F5, who would have caught the ball with ordinary effort (this is a given, as is the INT). The ball's trajectory is such that if it had been caught, it would have been foul. The ball lands foul and stays there.

You now where I'm going with this. If R3 is declared out, what happens to B1? Maybe some of you have seen this a bazillion times; I haven't. It was a hypothetical brought up by one of my gang.

Ace in CT

[mbyron]

B1 out, R3 stays put.

[kylejt]

Would it not depend on the location of the ball at the time of the interference?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by mbyron

B1 out, R3 stays put.

Correct for FED.

In OBR, R3 out, batter returns with an additional strike (it's still a foul ball).

[aceholleran]

Take it that the ball is over foul territory in the air when INT occurs. I knew we'd have some differences on this! Let's hear more!

Ace

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by aceholleran

Take it that the ball is over foul territory in the air when INT occurs. I knew we'd have some differences on this! Let's hear more!

Ace

It's been discussed several times on this (or other) sites -- if I could figure out the proper search criteria, I'd post a link.

[greymule]

This thread discusses OBR and others.

Interference over Foul Territory

Where is it in the Fed book? I can't find it.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by greymule

Where is it in the Fed book? I can't find it.

Rule 7-4-1f.

[greymule]

Would Fed rule any differently if the INT was an obvious attempt to break up a double play? For example, what if an R1 had been stealing on the pitch, and R3 grabbed F5's glove just before the ball hit the glove over foul territory and just as R1 was sliding into 2B?

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by greymule

Would Fed rule any differently if the INT was an obvious attempt to break up a double play? For example, what if an R1 had been stealing on the pitch, and R3 grabbed F5's glove just before the ball hit the glove over foul territory and just as R1 was sliding into 2B?

7-4-1f has to do with foul fly ball. 8-4-1h and 8-4-2g are the rules which apply to double play situations.

[David B]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Correct for FED.

In OBR, R3 out, batter returns with an additional strike (it's still a foul ball).

Thanks Bob, this is one of the plays that I have on my difference book between FED and OBR.

Usually it happens with BR on a foul fly ball, but this play with R3 is a twist.

Thanks for the reminder

David