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Old Sun May 11, 2008, 07:16pm
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Appeal questions

Appeals have always confused me. Let's assume NF rules.

1. Runner misses first and is diving back. Tag or no? In one case (not this sitch) in the case book, this is referred to as a force play. I have always been taught that the BR to first is NOT a force play, and it is not by the NF definition of force play. If it is not, doesn't the BR have to be tagged?

2. Case in the case book as follows. Runner on second. Ball to LF. The LFer throws home too late, but the runner to the plate misses the plate. Catcher with the ball steps on the plate, before the runner starts to return and throws to second trying to get the BR. The case book says that upon proper appeal the runner is out. What the heck does that mean. Does the catcher has to say "he missed the plate" then throw to second. Or can he step on the plate, throw to second and then say "he missed the plate"?

3. What about the BR who hits a grounder passes first without touching, then the first baseman catches the ball while touching the bag? Out? Or do you make him appeal verbally? I was taught that if the runner is a step past the bag when the throw arrives you signal safe and wait for an appeal. If it is bang-bang you signal out. I know there is a sitch similar to this, but that play has the first baseman catching NOT touching, then stepping on the base which constitutes an appeal.

4. Play at the plate. Catcher misses with the tag and the runner misses home. Signal or no? I had a NCAA umpire tell me that you HAVE to signal if there was a play. In this case you signal safe because the tag was missed. If there was no attempted tag you signal nothing. What if the runner crosses the plate and misses it and there is no play at all? I still signal safe.

Thoughts??????
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Old Sun May 11, 2008, 08:09pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Illini_Ref
Appeals have always confused me. Let's assume NF rules.

1. Runner misses first and is diving back. Tag or no? In one case (not this sitch) in the case book, this is referred to as a force play. I have always been taught that the BR to first is NOT a force play, and it is not by the NF definition of force play. If it is not, doesn't the BR have to be tagged?
If the runner is attempting to return, he must be tagged.

Quote:
2. Case in the case book as follows. Runner on second. Ball to LF. The LFer throws home too late, but the runner to the plate misses the plate. Catcher with the ball steps on the plate, before the runner starts to return and throws to second trying to get the BR. The case book says that upon proper appeal the runner is out. What the heck does that mean. Does the catcher has to say "he missed the plate" then throw to second. Or can he step on the plate, throw to second and then say "he missed the plate"?
The appeal must be obvious (which means more than "verbal") when /before / as it's made. If you know why F2 touched the plate, make the call. If you don't it wasn't obvious.

Quote:
3. What about the BR who hits a grounder passes first without touching, then the first baseman catches the ball while touching the bag? Out? Or do you make him appeal verbally? I was taught that if the runner is a step past the bag when the throw arrives you signal safe and wait for an appeal. If it is bang-bang you signal out. I know there is a sitch similar to this, but that play has the first baseman catching NOT touching, then stepping on the base which constitutes an appeal.
Ignore that case play -- it's wrong. Again, the appeal must be obvious.

Quote:
4. Play at the plate. Catcher misses with the tag and the runner misses home. Signal or no? I had a NCAA umpire tell me that you HAVE to signal if there was a play. In this case you signal safe because the tag was missed. If there was no attempted tag you signal nothing. What if the runner crosses the plate and misses it and there is no play at all? I still signal safe.

Thoughts??????
Do't make a call until the play is over. If both miss, the play isn't over.
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Old Sun May 11, 2008, 08:38pm
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Thank you Mr. Jenkins. Short easy to understand answers. Safe to say you do NOT dabble in politics???
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Old Sun May 11, 2008, 08:40pm
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Now if a runner who is forced to second misses second and is diving back all the fielder needs to do is tag the bag correct. This is a force play and the play is not over as the runner never touched. Correct?
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Old Mon May 12, 2008, 08:54am
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Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Illini_Ref
Now if a runner who is forced to second misses second and is diving back all the fielder needs to do is tag the bag correct. This is a force play and the play is not over as the runner never touched. Correct?
Although not mentioned in FED the terms "relaxed action" and "Unrelaxed action" aid an umpire in determining whether or not the fielder can simply touch the bag and make an appeal vs. tagging the runner which IMO I gather from your OP and posts that you are having trouble with.

Also, keep in mind that FED did away with the 'accidental appeal" 2-3 yrs. ago.

Generally speaking when action is "Un-Relaxed" ie; Runner scrambling back to the bag, the runner MUST be tagged in order to record the out.

When action is relaxed ie: R1 misses second base and is standing on third base. Then all the defense needs to do is tag the bag to record the out.

In addition the appeal does not have to be berbal but it MUST be an Unmistakable act. ie: one out R1. Hit and run and B1 hits a line shot right at F4 who simply flips to F3 to get the easy DP. That is an unmistakable act on the part of the defense to get R1.

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Old Mon May 12, 2008, 09:12am
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Just a thought.

If BR gets into a pickle between home and 1st, can 1st base be tagged for an out, or does the BR have to be tagged?
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Old Sun May 11, 2008, 09:16pm
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Case 8.2.2 Situation E

RULING: Since the runner has initiated action to return, the defense must tag him unless it is a force play, in which case all they would need to do is touch the base with the ball.

Wouldn't my above post constitute a force play?
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Old Sun May 11, 2008, 09:28pm
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If it's obvious that this is the reason the defense is touching the base, than yes.

If player misses 2nd, and the 2b is chasing him to go tag him, and steps on the base in doing so, its not a proper appeal. If he runs and touches 2nd, stops, and looks at you, then you have a proper appeal.

Correct?
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Old Mon May 12, 2008, 06:42am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Illini_Ref
Case 8.2.2 Situation E

RULING: Since the runner has initiated action to return, the defense must tag him unless it is a force play, in which case all they would need to do is touch the base with the ball.

Wouldn't my above post constitute a force play?
Not as I read it. In your play, R1 has passed 2B, thus removing the force. He must be tagged off the base to record an out. With a runner scrambling back to the base, the defense must tag the runner.
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Last edited by mbyron; Mon May 12, 2008 at 06:47am.
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Old Mon May 12, 2008, 09:29am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Illini_Ref
Case 8.2.2 Situation E

RULING: Since the runner has initiated action to return, the defense must tag him unless it is a force play, in which case all they would need to do is touch the base with the ball.

Wouldn't my above post constitute a force play?
Because for the sake of a force play, once the runner passes the base, he is assumed "safe" until a proper appeal is made.

Now, you could have a situation where, runner misses 2nd, they throw back and try to tag him while fielder is standing on base and he secured the ball standing on base before runner returned and play was made, still safe, then the fielder appeals him missing second.

I am banging him!
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 10:54am
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This is my last post on this thread (in the background is heard cheering)! The question(s) below was sent to Brad Stearns, the lead interpreter in Illinois for the IHSA. The question is in italics and his response is in bold. This squares with what most on this thread has to say. This is how I'm calling it now since my state's lead interpreter wants it this way. Any reference to FOTG in the following is a reference to the moniker of someone on another board who asked the question to Brad.

Some of us are having a discussion about that status of a runner who misses a base to which he is forced. Assume the following:

• R1, R3, 2 outs
• R1 stealing, ground ball to F4 who throws late to F6 at 2B
• R1 slides past 2B without touching it. He scrambles back.
• R3 scores

The questions I have are these:

1. Does R1’s passing of 2B without touching it remove the force out?
2. Must F6 tag R1 as he scrambles back toward the base?
3. If the answers to questions 1 & 2 are “yes,” is R3’s score a timing play?
4. What is the appropriate mechanic/signal when a runner misses a base (are there different mechanics for different sitches)?


You bring up a very valid situation and list of questions. The answers are directly related to the High School (NFHS) appeal rule which has changed several times throughout the history of NFHS baseball rules.

If you will remember, many years ago, the NFHS took the traditional baseball appeal rule out of the High School Rule book. For all intents and purposes, the appeal rule was eliminated, and umpires were directed to automatically call a runner out after play was terminated if he missed a base or failed to properly re-tag a base after a catch of a batted ball. This was predicated on the fact that umpires observed the infraction, then had the guts to call it, when a runner missed a base, or left a base too soon, etc.

For the most part this rule was unpopular with coaches, players, and umpires...if for no other reason that it just wasn’t “baseball” to have no appeals. Finally in the early 2000’s, the “no appeal” rule was taken out of the rule book and replaced with a new high school version, which allowed for not only the traditional type of appeal, but also a dead ball appeal by a coach or player, which is in the current NFHS rule book now.

However, along the way there were a couple of interpretations which sort of modified the rule. The first interpretation was the automatic inadvertent appeal. Here is an example of how this interpretation worked:

Let’s say a batter hits a gapper into right center for a triple. The BR misses 2nd while advancing to 3rd. The throw comes into F4 from the outfield, and as F4 runs the ball in, he casually (or inadvertently) touches 2nd base. With the new interpretation, even though F4 had no intention of making a legitimate appeal on a missed base, the fact that he touched 2nd with the ball in his possession, it automatically resulted in an inadvertent appeal play, and the umpire (assuming he saw the BR miss the base) would call the runner out on the inadvertent appeal.

Needlessly to say, that was not a very popular rule either, and it lasted only about a year or two, when the inadvertent appeal was rescinded, I’m guessing about 3 years ago. However, at our State Interpreters meeting the year it was rescinded, it brought up an interesting discussion in which the interpreters had a difficult time trying to reach unanimous agreement on the interpretation. Here is a situation:

Batter hits a ground ball to F6, who makes a perfect throw to F3 who is in contact with 1st. However, the BR beats the throw, but does not touch, ie., steps over, 1st base. F3 has no idea that the BR did not touch first. What is the call? Since the inadvertent appeal rule has now been rescinded, unless a proper appeal is made, the BR is safe at 1st.

But the discussion didn’t end there. Another situation: With a R1 at 2nd, base hit to the outfield, a throw comes into the catcher resulting in a very close play at the plate (assume no obstruction on the part of the catcher). F2 misses the tag at the plate, but R1 also misses touching the plate. What is the umpire’s call? We all were pretty much in agreement that the umpire calls nothing, until either F2 tags R1, or R1 comes back to touch the plate. If neither occurs then the run scores until if and when a proper appeal is made.

The discussion continued. On our previous situation on the BR at 1st, does the umpire make no call or does he call the runner safe at first? The answer from our Head Interpreter: umpire calls him “safe” (until or unless a proper appeal is made). The discussion raged on. Why the difference between a no-call on the play at the plate, and a safe call on the play at first. And the answer from our Head Interpreter: “That’s baseball!”

Bottom line: After a lot of discussion, this is what the the official Illinois (IHSA) Ruling is...and you won’t find this specifically in the Rule book, nor to the best of my knowledge in the Case book (emphasis FOTG):

Once a runner has passed a base, he is ruled to have achieved that base. Then all other rules apply, including put-outs and appeals. If the play is a force play, the umpire will make a call (and we all know a play on a batted ball by the BR at first is the same as a force out, except that he also has the right to over-run 1st without liability of being put out unless he makes an initial attempt to advance). If the play is not a force out (such as our play at the plate), then the umpire makes no call until the runner either touches the base or is subsequently tagged out.

So after that history of the appeal rule, here are the answers to the four questions on your situation:
1. Yes, the force out is removed.
2. Yes, the runner must be tagged to record the out.
3. Since the force was removed, yes, R3’s score is a timing play.
4. There is no mechanic that the umpire uses to indicate a runner missed a base. (Revert to the “Bottom line” paragraph above.) Since the initial play at 2nd was a force play, the umpire would initially call the runner “safe”...then “out” if and when the tag is applied. (emphasis FOTG) However, there is still another possibility, if the defense properly appeals that on the initial play at 2nd the runner missed the base, the R1 would be out on appeal on the initial force play, and R3’s score would not count, as no preceding run can score when the 3rd out is made on a force play. (emphasis FOTG)
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:41am
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The only thing I disagree with here is answer 3: since the runner was forced to advance and missed the base, if he is called out on (missed base) appeal and that's the 3rd out, the run would NOT score and it is NOT a timing play.
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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:56am
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Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron
The only thing I disagree with here is answer 3: since the runner was forced to advance and missed the base, if he is called out on (missed base) appeal and that's the 3rd out, the run would NOT score and it is NOT a timing play.
IMO, I think what you are referring to is the advantageous 4th out appeal.

Example: R1/R3 2 outs

Ground ball to F6 who throws to F4 to try and get the force on R1. R1 slides past the base (R3 scores) In scrambling back R1 is tagged for out number 3.

At this point the Run scores.

Now the defense can make the advantageous 4th out appeal to cancel R3's run.

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Old Thu May 15, 2008, 11:58am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron
The only thing I disagree with here is answer 3: since the runner was forced to advance and missed the base, if he is called out on (missed base) appeal and that's the 3rd out, the run would NOT score and it is NOT a timing play.
I believe the answer to question three is stating that if the runner is tagged out the force has been removed. However, if he is out on appeal, no runs can score because it was a 'force play' appeal.

-Josh
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