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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Mar 02, 2008, 08:26pm
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Problem I see is he doesn't disengage the rubber first.
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Old Sun Mar 02, 2008, 08:32pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MadCityRef
Problem I see is he doesn't disengage the rubber first.
Why should he? He's stepping and throwing to a base without making a move toward home.

Edited to add: The only reasons to disengage are 1. F1 performs the move incorrectly while engaged and, 2. So many umpires mistakenly think that a RH must disengage to throw to first.
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Last edited by GarthB; Sun Mar 02, 2008 at 08:34pm.
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Old Sun Mar 02, 2008, 09:53pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MadCityRef
Problem I see is he doesn't disengage the rubber first.
no, no, no, no,...anybody who's played baseball at any level about T-ball...
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Old Sun Mar 02, 2008, 10:04pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MadCityRef
Problem I see is he doesn't disengage the rubber first.
that is not a requirement for throwing to a base
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