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Old Wed Nov 28, 2007, 11:24pm
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R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.

Last edited by canadaump6; Wed Nov 28, 2007 at 11:42pm.
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Old Wed Nov 28, 2007, 11:30pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by canadaump6
R2. Barry Bonds shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third).
Even in San Francisco, as of last summer, anyway, that was still referred to as the McCovey shift.
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Old Wed Nov 28, 2007, 11:59pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MrUmpire
Even in San Francisco, as of last summer, anyway, that was still referred to as the McCovey shift.
And well before that, it was called the Williams shift, after that notorious pull hitter named Ted.

The Williams Shift
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Old Thu Nov 29, 2007, 03:48am
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And during the mid 60s, well after Teddy Ballgame left the San Diego Padres, it was known as the Jim Gentile shift here at the friendly confines of Westgate Park, where the slugger played AAA ball near the end of his short career.

Obscure fact: On Tony Gwynn's 1st birthday, Jim Gentile became the 4th player in major league history to hit Grand Slam home runs in consecutive innings.
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Last edited by SanDiegoSteve; Thu Nov 29, 2007 at 03:56am.
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Old Thu Nov 29, 2007, 10:01am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by canadaump6
R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.
Start with this general principal: A runner is out when he's hit by an untouched fair batted ball in fair territory unless BOTH of the following are true: 1) He could reasonably expect the defense to field the ball before it got to him and 2) A defender playing behind him didn't have a play
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Old Thu Nov 29, 2007, 01:03pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Start with this general principal: A runner is out when he's hit by an untouched fair batted ball in fair territory unless BOTH of the following are true: 1) He could reasonably expect the defense to field the ball before it got to him and 2) A defender playing behind him didn't have a play
So if nobody came even close to having a play on the ball, it would not be considered "passing an infielder" even if it did technically pass an infielder?

Last edited by canadaump6; Thu Nov 29, 2007 at 01:12pm.
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Old Thu Nov 29, 2007, 01:06pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by canadaump6
So if nobody came even close to having a play on the ball, it would not be considered "passing an infielder" even if it did pass an infielder?
I think the words in the rule are "through or by" and "by" means "immediately by".

In some rules codes there's the "string theory" -- run a string frm F3 to F4 to F6 to F5 -- if the ball passes the string, then the ball has passed an infielder and the runner is not out.
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Old Thu Nov 29, 2007, 07:51pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by canadaump6
R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.

Somewhere along the line an umpire has to rely on common sense and not the typed words.
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