INT after ball 4

[fitump56]

Originally Posted by fitump56
Assuming that that Ball Four was called after the B interfered, which is what I take from "the batter leans over the outside part over the plate but does not swing. the catcher immediatly tries to throw to 2nd cause the runner was stealing", the call is obvious. You have B INT.

If after "Ball 4", then no B INT. Hell if I can tell by the OP.

Originally Posted by David Emerling

Let's say R1 is stealing on the play. The pitcher throws ball 4, the BR interferes with the catcher's throw down to 2nd, R1 overslides the bag and is tagged out?

I'm just making stuff up, now.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

This isn't so off the cuff as I can remember many plays where F2 has been coached to throw to 2B for this very reason with Ball 4. The overslide or the slide and off base, not knowing the ball has been delivered to F6/F4.

I also don't agree that B-R has this inherent right to take 1B on Ball 4 without regard to D/F2. The ball is live. What harm is it that B realize his obligation to not interfere with any D effort? None which is why this "hustle down" junk never made any sense to me.

We have a judgment on INT after Ball 4 is called, and I don't have to tell you that part of the "hustle down" theory was Tiger coaching the block of F2s throw.

I'm a bit out of the loop calling mainly adult ball, they ararely hustle down even at 18.

To wit, B can wait a heartbeat and if he doesn't I got B INT even after Ball 4 is officially called.