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Old Wed Aug 29, 2007, 09:39pm
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i agree, great call. although anderson's feet were still near the bag, he clearly reached out with his arms to push at iguchi trying to turn the double play.

3 in a row for the phils over the mets.

did you hear willie randolph repeatedly refer to the call as "obstruction" in his post game interview?? how many years does he need to be involved in baseball before he learns the difference between obstruction and interference?
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Old Wed Aug 29, 2007, 09:48pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by newump
did you hear willie randolph repeatedly refer to the call as "obstruction" in his post game interview??

I heard he is going to be broadcasting games next year.
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Old Wed Aug 29, 2007, 10:32pm
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Why is this such a great call? Pretty obvious.

What isn't so great is that it hasn't been called consistently over the years. Guys have been sliding 10 feet from the bag and getting away with it forever.
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Old Wed Aug 29, 2007, 11:35pm
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It wasn't the distance from the bag (which according to the press reports Anderson is STILL arguing) -- it was the intentional act of going after Iguchi with what can only be described as a "cross body block."

Say what you want about CB Bucknor, but he didn't hesitate and stepped up to make a solid call.

There's a picture here: http://slam.canoe.ca/Slam/Baseball/M...456731-ap.html -- look how far Anderson is from second base.

Last edited by Rich; Wed Aug 29, 2007 at 11:41pm.
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Old Thu Aug 30, 2007, 01:14am
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Bucknor didn't hesitate, as did the umpire in the Phillies/Padres crew did when Ruiz took out M. Giles. Same scenario, but now since it was called right away, as the other one should have been, the call looks much cleaner.
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Old Thu Aug 30, 2007, 01:46am
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just to make it sure but, if R3 would have reached homeplate before the interference (and the would have been 0 outs), he would be alowed to score, does he ?
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Old Thu Aug 30, 2007, 02:27am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by _Bruno_
just to make it sure but, if R3 would have reached homeplate before the interference (and the would have been 0 outs), he would be alowed to score, does he ?
No. PBUC/MLB interpretation is that the runner is returned to the time of pitch base unless there is an intervening play.
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Old Thu Aug 30, 2007, 02:38am
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Old Wed Sep 05, 2007, 02:54am
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Originally Posted by _Bruno_
just to make it sure but, if R3 would have reached homeplate before the interference (and the would have been 0 outs), he would be alowed to score, does he ?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Fronheiser
No. PBUC/MLB interpretation is that the runner is returned to the time of pitch base unless there is an intervening play.
ok, lets say we have R3,R1, 0 out.
intervening play on R3 at home, he is safe and then the BR interfereces on his way to 1st. R3 is allowed to score. has R1 go back to 1st even if he made it safely into 2nd before the interference ?

but what if we have R2 and R1, the intervening play IS NOT AT HOME PLATE but a try to force out R2 at third but R2 beats the throw and now BR interfereces on his way to 1st. can R2 stay on 3rd ? has R1 (now on 2nd) go back to 1st ?
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Old Wed Sep 05, 2007, 08:29am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kylejt
Why is this such a great call? Pretty obvious.

What isn't so great is that it hasn't been called consistently over the years. Guys have been sliding 10 feet from the bag and getting away with it forever.
While I agree with the fact that this was the correct call, I'm still looking for the "great call" here...to me this play was as obvious as a routine fly ball to center and the umpire signaling "out." Was that a great call? Of course we know the answer to that is no. I guess I'm just not sure that correct call = great call on something like this that is fairly black and white...not to mention, these umpires get paid lots and lots of money to make those calls correctly.
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