sac or hit on game ending play?

medinger2 · #1 (**permalink**) Tue May 03, 2005, 11:30am

A bit of a spin on the bunt vs. hit question. Bottom of last inning, less than two outs. Winning run on third. Batter bunts the ball on a suicide squeeze - the winning run scores and no play is made on the batter-runner. (The game ended as soon as the runner touched home). Score this a sac bunt or a hit?

mattmets · #2 (**permalink**) Tue May 03, 2005, 11:53am

Isn't the game over when the runner touches first or R3 scores, whichever comes second if there is no play on either?

Rich Ives · #3 (**permalink**) Tue May 03, 2005, 12:02pm

Doesn't matter in this case - if BR had been out it would have only been the second out.

Score a sac UNLESS you determine that BR would have beaten a play (had ther been one).

medinger2 · #4 (**permalink**) Tue May 03, 2005, 01:19pm

It was a good bunt - it would have taken a very good play to get the runner at first (possibly extraordinary effort). I'm leaning towards scoring it as a hit. Thanks, Rich.