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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Aug 01, 2007, 10:03am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by soundedlikeastrike
IMO it looked intentional but wasn't.
The beauty of this is that your opinion doesn't matter--if the batter kicks the ball it is deemed intentional.
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Old Wed Aug 01, 2007, 11:06am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tcarilli
if the batter kicks the ball it is deemed intentional.

is this a official interpratation?? im not bein sarcastic id like to know.
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Old Wed Aug 01, 2007, 11:16am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpLarryJohnson
is this a official interpratation?? im not bein sarcastic id like to know.
Yes it is interference and you can find it in the Smitty 101 Rulebook!

And I am being sarcastic!
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Wed Aug 01, 2007, 11:22am
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i see this: "If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference."

but thats not the answer---theres sucha thing asa unintentional kick. i dont have the ozzyinterp 2007 Edition so sorry bout that!
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