Balls hits runner on base

[Kaliix]

Originally Posted by njdevs00cup

If a batted ball hits a baserunner on the base, is the runner out when:

the infield is drawn in and had an opportunity to make a play?

7.09(k) is the proper rule reference for the situation above.

7.09 It is interference by a batter or a runner when -- (k)A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball.

While the rule above makes reference to a "fielder" and "infielder" it should be clear that the proper term is infielder. This is backed up by the JEA where the term "infielder" is used EVERY time a member of the defensive team is mentioned.

A runner is always out if he intentionally lets himself be hit with a batted ball, whether that ball is deflected or not, whether no other fielder has a play on the ball or not.

In the original post cited above, the infield is "in" (assuming again we are talking the whole infield) and has had an opportunity to make a play. If the term "make a play" is defined as the ball passing by a fielder within an arms length, then barring the runner allowing the ball to hit him intentionally, the runner is NOT out and the ball remains live.

Since Evans is very careful to reference an infielder in his explanation of the rule in the JEA, whether an outfielder has a play on the ball is not relevant to the rule. If the ball passes by an infielder, meaning within arms length, and no other infielder has a chance for a play, as long as the runner doesn't intentionally let the ball hit him, the runner is NOT OUT and the ball remains live.

[GarthB]

Originally Posted by Kaliix

7
Since Evans is very careful to reference an infielder in his explanation of the rule in the JEA, whether an outfielder has a play on the ball is not relevant to the rule. If the ball passes by an infielder, meaning within arms length, and no other infielder has a chance for a play, as long as the runner doesn't intentionally let the ball hit him, the runner is NOT OUT and the ball remains live.

I can only surmise you have never heard Jim explain this rule or attended a pro school or camp at which this was covered.

Jim's explanation is competely contrary to your assumption. The MLBUM ruling is competely contrary to your assumption.

[Kaliix]

Originally Posted by GarthB

I can only surmise you have never heard Jim explain this rule or attended a pro school or camp at which this was covered.

Jim's explanation is competely contrary to your assumption. The MLBUM ruling is competely contrary to your assumption.

I make no assumptions. I am only going by what I read. I have never heard Mr. Evan's explain the rule, but I can read what he wrote concerning the pertinent rule in his Official Baseball Rules, Annotated.

Originally Posted by Jim Evans, page 211

Historical Notes: In 1877, the rules stated that a baserunner struck by any batted ball shall be declared out. The rules of 1920 amended this concept to provide that the runner was not to be declared out if a fair ball goes through an infielder and hits a runner immediately back of him.

After the revision and recodification in 1950, the rule included balls that had been deflected. It further explained what the rulesmakers had in mind by stating that runners were not to be called out if the umpire was convinced that the ball passed through or by the infielders and no other infielder had a chance to make a play on the ball. Of course, if the runner deliberately kicked or interfered intentionally with any such ball, he would be declared out. (Emphasis added)

Further, from Jaksa/Roder page 96,

However, it is not interference if a batted ball touches him after passing a fringe infielder and no other infielder had a play opportunity..., unless he touches such ball intentionally. (Emphasis added)

When addressing the exception to the runner being out by virtue of being hit by a batted ball, both Evans and Jaksa/Roder clearly use the specific phrase "infielder" when referring to another member of the defensive team having an opportunity to field the ball.

I don't know how Jim Evans explained the interference rule, but if he explained it to mean that if a batted ball passes by an infielder and contacts a runner (unintentionally), that the runner is out if an outfielder has an opportunity to play on the ball, his explanation doesn't square with what he or Jaksa/Roder wrote.

Even the OBR state "infielder" in the relevant part of the rule, "that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball."

I don't know how much clearer the rule can be on this?