Overrruning first on a base on balls

Jay R · #1 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 27, 2005, 06:43pm

I have seen two versions of this interpretation. In OBR, can the BR overrun first base (similar to a grounder)after a base on balls?

jicecone · #2 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 27, 2005, 07:09pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Jay R
I have seen two versions of this interpretation. In OBR, can the BR overrun first base (similar to a grounder)after a base on balls?

Yes.

Try the one version in the rulebook OBR 7.08j, which is the same in NCAA.

It IS, different in HS rules. The runner can be tagged off the base on a base on balls, unless its an intentional walk. then its tough to do because the ball is dead.

Rich Ives · #3 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 27, 2005, 10:36pm

And the one interpretation that counts, the MLBUM, says the runner may overrun on a walk.

LDUB · #4 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 27, 2005, 11:04pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Rich Ives
And the one interpretation that counts, the MLBUM, says the runner may overrun on a walk.

Yeah that really is the one interp that counts. I am sure Jay works MLB.

Rich Ives · #5 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 28, 2005, 07:45am

Quote:

Originally posted by LDUB

Quote:

Originally posted by Rich Ives
And the one interpretation that counts, the MLBUM, says the runner may overrun on a walk.

Yeah that really is the one interp that counts. I am sure Jay works MLB.

The guys that own the rules say what they mean and you think it's not the definitive answer?

PeteBooth · #6 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 28, 2005, 07:53am

Originally posted by Jay R

I have seen two versions of this interpretation. In OBR, can the BR overrun first base (similar to a grounder)after a base on balls?

This is one area that IMO MLB needs to re-think and change to the FED ruling.

Why!

The reason the rule-makers allow B1 to over-run/over-slide first base to beging with is to make a play close and put excitement into the game.

When B1 walks, there is now no need to over-run/over slide first because the theory "make a play close" is no longer relevant.

Pete Booth

greymule · #7 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 28, 2005, 10:07am

Is the MLBUM available to the public?

My 2 cents is that the runner should be allowed to overrun 1B on a walk, as he is in OBR but not Fed. Ball 4 gets away from F2 and BR runs hard to 1B. He should be allowed to overrun if he decides not to try for 2B. Or on a 3-2 count BR tries to check his swing and the pitch gets away from F2. Thinking his checked swing might be appealed into strike 3, BR runs hard to 1B and overruns. The defense shouldn't get a tag out if he overruns and the pitch is ruled ball 4.

GarthB · #8 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 28, 2005, 10:39am

Quote:

Originally posted by PeteBooth
Originally posted by Jay R

I have seen two versions of this interpretation. In OBR, can the BR overrun first base (similar to a grounder)after a base on balls?

This is one area that IMO MLB needs to re-think and change to the FED ruling.

Why!

The reason the rule-makers allow B1 to over-run/over-slide first base to beging with is to make a play close and put excitement into the game.

Pete Booth

The history I have indicates the reason the rule makers allowed the batter to over run first was to allow the runner a better chance to obtain first by not having to slow down and hold the bag. This was done to help the offense get runners on base.

LDUB · #9 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 28, 2005, 11:32am

Quote:

Originally posted by Rich Ives

Quote:

Originally posted by LDUB

Quote:

Originally posted by Rich Ives
And the one interpretation that counts, the MLBUM, says the runner may overrun on a walk.

Yeah that really is the one interp that counts. I am sure Jay works MLB.

The guys that own the rules say what they mean and you think it's not the definitive answer?

Are PBUC and MLBUM different on some issues?

By your logic, guy working MiLB should use the MLBUM interp over the PBUC interp because MLB "owns" the rules. There are different interps of certain rules, you have to decide which interp you want to follow.

DG · #10 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 28, 2005, 08:34pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Rich Ives
And the one interpretation that counts, the MLBUM, says the runner may overrun on a walk.

GRRRR... I just hate when MLBUM or JEA is quoted, as neither is available to general population.

Rich Ives · #11 (**permalink**) Fri Jul 29, 2005, 07:31am

Are PBUC and MLBUM different on some issues?

I don't know as I haven't set then side by side for every interp in them. What do you think they are?

By your logic, guy working MiLB should use the MLBUM interp over the PBUC interp because MLB "owns" the rules.

You do what the boss wants you to do. That doesn't change the FACT that MLB owns the rules.

There are different interps of certain rules, you have to decide which interp you want to follow.

You follow the owners definition unless your boss tells you otherwise.

BTW, the boss' changes don't mean squat to someone outside his domain. He can tell you to call red green, and you will, but that doesn't make red green.