Infield Fly Rule Question???

[rzrbkfan2004]

I found this forum, because I have a question about a rule.

Just say you have runners on 1st and 2nd Base with no outs. There is a pop up in the middle infield and the umpire calls the infield fly rule to be in effect. The fielder who was trying to catch the ball, misses it, for whatever reason, but doesn't touch it. Okay, now the runner on 2nd base is off of the base a couple of feet and when the ball hits the ground it takes a funny bounce and hits the runner who was originally on 2nd. Is this runner out?

I don't think he is, because the fielder had a chance to catch the ball and didn't. I also think when the umpire calls the infield fly rule if the fielder drops and never touches it, no matter where he is on the field the runner would not be out (unless he interferes with the fielder).

I do know that it would probably end up being the umpire’s discretion, but I am sure there is a correct call on this play.

If anyone knows the correct call on this, please let me know. Thank You!!

[SanDiegoSteve]

If the ball has not passed or touched the fielder, the runner is out when hit by the ball. The only protection for him is if he is touching his base and is hit with an infield fly. If the ball has passed the fielder, and no other play can be made by another fielder, then the runner is not out, and the ball remains alive.

Just because the ball was untouched, if it hasn't gone past the fielder, the fielder still has the right to field the ball without any interference from the runner.

[LMan]

Originally Posted by rzrbkfan2004

Just say you have runners on 1st and 2nd Base with no outs. There is a pop up in the middle infield and the umpire calls the infield fly rule to be in effect.

Batter's out, no matter what happens next.

The fielder who was trying to catch the ball, misses it, for whatever reason, but doesn't touch it. Okay, now the runner on 2nd base is off of the base a couple of feet and when the ball hits the ground it takes a funny bounce and hits the runner who was originally on 2nd. Is this runner out?

As SDS says, if the ball passed by/through the fielder (and no other fielder had a play) and struck the runner, the ball is live, and he is not out. Since the IFF call assumes that this fly ball was catchable 'with ordinary effort,' I speculate that the dropped ball was "by/through" the fielder for purposes of this rule, and not far from his reach. HTBT prevails, of course. Its your hypothetical, so you tell us.

[johnnyg08]

couldn't the pitcher be considered the nearest fielder in this case?? I think there might be a stip regarding the pitcher and IFF...but maybe not...I don't remember...yes, "had to be there" but does the pitcher count as a fielder in this case???

[LMan]

The pitcher is an infielder for purposes of this rule.

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by LMan

The pitcher is an infielder for purposes of this rule.

Well if the pitcher could've made the play using ordinary effort, then, if that's the case (I know, we weren't there)...we don't have Interference

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

Well if the pitcher could've made the play using ordinary effort, then, if that's the case (I know, we weren't there)...we don't have Interference

Good point. Because if the ball gets past the pitcher, there are no other infielders who could have made a play on the ball.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

couldn't the pitcher be considered the nearest fielder in this case?? I think there might be a stip regarding the pitcher and IFF...but maybe not...I don't remember...yes, "had to be there" but does the pitcher count as a fielder in this case???

Once the ball hit the ground, the IFF situation is over, and the provision concerning the pitcher is no longer in effect, and the regular interference rules take over.

[johnnyg08]

yeah, more than likely, without seeing the play, if a runner is running in a direct path to the next base, more than likely this wouldn't be an ordinary effort play for the pitcher, but the other infielders...ok...i'm done posting here...peace out gentlemen

[archangel]

Originally Posted by LMan

The pitcher is an infielder for purposes of this rule.

Can you tell me the FED rule backing your statement? I dont necessarily disagree with you but the following has me wondering....

8-4-2K -(paraphrase) A runner is out when he is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches/passes any infielder, except the pitcher....

But also...
8-4-2k-2 ..if a runner is hit by an infield fly when he is not touching his base, both he and batter are out.

It seems to read that a FLY ball, ruled IFF, that hits a runner not on base is out, but what of an IFF that falls untouched, bounces, and hits a runner not on base? Do we then rule according to 8-4-2? if so then a pitcher wouldnt be considered an infielder....

[blueump]

Originally Posted by archangel

Can you tell me the FED rule backing your statement? I dont necessarily disagree with you but the following has me wondering....

8-4-2K -(paraphrase) A runner is out when he is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches/passes any infielder, except the pitcher....

But also...
8-4-2k-2 ..if a runner is hit by an infield fly when he is not touching his base, both he and batter are out.

It seems to read that a FLY ball, ruled IFF, that hits a runner not on base is out, but what of an IFF that falls untouched, bounces, and hits a runner not on base? Do we then rule according to 8-4-2? if so then a pitcher wouldnt be considered an infielder....

FED rule 6-1-5

"When a pitcher is attempting to field a batted or thrown ball...his status is that of an infielder..."

Is that clear enough?


Edited to add: I think I'm getting this sarcastic response thing down! Thanks for all the help guys!

[SanDiegoSteve]

Like I said, once the ball touches the ground, it is not an Infield Fly situation any longer, and you would use 8-4-2k, not the IFF provision.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Razorback needs to clarify which fielder was attempting to catch the ball, and where the ball was when it hit the runner. Then we can get a clearer picture of exactly what happened. Until then, we are all just batting at the breeze with guesswork.

[LMan]

Originally Posted by archangel

Can you tell me the FED rule backing your statement? I dont necessarily disagree with you but the following has me wondering....

where in the OP does it say this is FED? Look in 2.00, definition of IFF, for the OBR cite.

8-4-2K -(paraphrase) A runner is out when he is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches/passes any infielder, except the pitcher....

But also...
8-4-2k-2 ..if a runner is hit by an infield fly when he is not touching his base, both he and batter are out.

It seems to read that a FLY ball, ruled IFF, that hits a runner not on base is out, but what of an IFF that falls untouched, bounces, and hits a runner not on base? Do we then rule according to 8-4-2? if so then a pitcher wouldnt be considered an infielder....

Once the ball contacts the ground, it is no longer a fly ball, yes? It is now a 'fair batted ball' for all rule interps (assuming it was a fair ball, of course).

The OP states 'fielder' near 2B so I speculate that it is not F1. However, more clarification may be forthcoming, or razr will let us all twist in the wind forever

[rzrbkfan2004]

The ball was hit on the SS side of 2nd base. It was actually behind the baseline. The SS tried to make the catch, but failed to touch it and when the ball hit the ground it had some crazy spin on it and struck the baserunner who was off of the base.