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Old Mon Apr 16, 2007, 11:21am
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Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 3,236
Quote:
Originally Posted by Don Mueller
I'm confused please help.

If the last runner scored before the interference, then how can you have interference? No play, no call.

What am I missing?
Did you read the article?

Bases were loaded.

R3 and R2 scored.

Interference at the plate by the batter on the throw to get R1.
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Rich Ives
Different does not equate to wrong

Last edited by Rich Ives; Mon Apr 16, 2007 at 11:24am.
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