foul tip - rule question

[Tim C]

Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. Wrote:

"This is an uncaught third strike. The batter can advance to first base at his own risk. Your friend is correct."

Site a rules interpretation . . . anything at all that says:

If a batter can hit the bouncing pitch for a home run . . . why would the simple fact that the pitch bounced before foul tipped . . . that it would not be a caught (and actually a foul tip) for a strike.

Your friend is WRONG. And so is Mark.

I am waiting . . . we have done this at least three times in the last year.

MTD is referring to an old "pseudo" ruling from Roder. And he is wrong.

Evans has made it clear and Roder now agrees.

RODER in one interp said it could not be caught for a foul tip.

Evans retorted that if the pitch can be hit for a home run how could anyone say it is not a "foul tip" and Roder folded . . . to Roder's credit: he talked with the entire MLB staff and they all agreed it would be a foul tip!

Additional comment:

When are the "hands part of the bat?"

We've been there before also . . .

Regards,

PS: If it hits the ground we refer to the original definition of a foul ball.