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Once the batter hits/tips the ball it becomes a batted ball but since the batted ball goes directly to the catchers mitt it makes it a foul tip. So its not apples to apples with the two situations. Thanks David |
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Tim, I ask again, Why is it OK for you to challenge anyone to cite a specific rule reference to disprove your answer then blatantly say you will not cite specific rulings to support yours? Last edited by Daryl H. Long; Fri Mar 02, 2007 at 03:54pm. |
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Double standards. |
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At times, don't we all, here and in private lists. But in this case, I don't think that was in play. Tee provided the correct and to those who know the history of this issue, blatantly obvious ruling. He also provided some of the history of the correct interps to back it up. He then indicated it would take a specific citation to disprove it. In this case, that's like one saying "the sun will come up tomorrow and I provide past history as my evidence. If you think it won't, give me some reasons." As for Tee saying he doesn't provide citations, I believe he was exaggerating slightly. I've seen him do so in the past. Perhaps he was announcing a new philosophy. I don't think the earth will stall on its axis of he has. Even most on this board will probably continue as they have in the past. There's not much any of us can or will do to change the perceptions that have been established. It happens, but not often.
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GB |
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But if not caught.......doesn't a foul tip that isn't caught become a foul ball? Sure it does. If not caught I vote "Foul", the count remains at 2 strikes Last edited by Justme; Wed Feb 28, 2007 at 12:43am. |
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