1st & 3rd - F1 throws to 2nd - balk?

ygyo · #1 (**permalink**) Mon Jul 24, 2006, 03:11pm

R1 & R3 - R1 leaves early to steal 2nd base. Pitcher spins and throws to 2nd base to get tag out of R1. He spins (as he would normally do to back pick a runner already on 2nd base) without first disengaging the plate. Is this a balk? Thanks.

3appleshigh · #2 (**permalink**) Mon Jul 24, 2006, 03:23pm

NO - (i'm told this is too short a message but the Answer is NO)

UmpJM · #3 (**permalink**) Mon Jul 24, 2006, 03:26pm

ygyo,

If the R1 is attempting to steal 2B when the pitcher makes this move, it is perfectly legal - i.e., not a balk.

Reference:

8.05

Quote:

(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play;

Although 2B IS "unoccupied", since the pitcher is throwing there "for the purpose of making a (legitimate) play", he is legal.

JM

ozzy6900 · #4 (**permalink**) Mon Jul 24, 2006, 06:15pm

Yes, this is a balk when playing under Iraqi MLB rules, punishable by be-heading.

But in the USA, it is not a balk.

Sorry, I promise I'll get back on the meds just as soon as I can!

Rcichon · #5 (**permalink**) Mon Jul 24, 2006, 11:44pm

roflmfao Ozzy. Beheadings instead of ejections.
This has a chance.........

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