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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jun 29, 2006, 10:30am
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mpklein,

Yes, that's a legal catch and an out (assuming the F9 demonstrated voluntary & intentional release after gaining secure possession in his hand or glove). (See Rule 2.00, Catch & In Flight).

JM
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Old Thu Jun 29, 2006, 06:17pm
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Follow-up

It turned out to be a triple play because the umpire called out both R1 and R2for leaving early on appeal. R1 left the bag early before the 2nd baseman touched the ball. However, R2 left the bag after the 2nd baseman touched the ball, but before the outfielder touched and caught the ball. Was the umpire correct calling R2 out?
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Old Thu Jun 29, 2006, 08:42pm
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mpklein,

As described, no the umpire was not correct. Any runner has met his retouch obligation as long as he was in contact with his TOP base as or after the first touch by the first fielder. Once again, Rule 2.00, Catch (in the Comment,towards the end).

JM
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 12:45am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PWL
If a similar play were to happen in foul territory, the runners can only leave the base at the time of the catch. Take for instance, foul ball down the right field line. Second baseman and first baseman give chase. The first baseman reaches out, dives and the ball flips out of his glove. It pops up into the air without touching the ground and the second baseman dives to catch it. At this time, the runners are allowed to tag and advance at their own risk.
mpklein,

I would encourage you to completely disregard PWL's remarks, because he has entered a JACKASS in this race.

JM

P.S. Where do you get this B.S. PWL?
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 12:49am
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I guess it makes a big difference if one were in fair or foul according to PWL

I hate to state the obvious, but that makes no sense. In fact, it's quite funny
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 01:37am
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PWL,

Quote:
Originally Posted by PWL
Because it's just foul ball until it's caught. And we all know you cannot advance on a foul ball......... at least some of us do.

Actually, it ain't nothin' before it's caught. And, those of us who have actually read a rulebook know that a runner CAN advance on a caught foul ball. As long as said runner has met his retouch obligation. Which would be on the "first touch". Moron. (No offense intended towards the developmentally disabled.)

How long will it be before you delete your erroneous posts on THIS thread - as is your habit?

JM

Last edited by UmpJM; Fri Jun 30, 2006 at 01:53am.
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 02:53am
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I almost didn't want to dignify the previous misinformation with a response, but I found this and thought it would directly disprove PWL's ideas. Here goes...

MLB Rule 2.00 (Catch) Comment: A catch is legal if the ball is finally held by any fielder, even though juggled, or held by another fielder before it touches the ground. Runners may leave their bases the instant the first fielder touches the ball. A fielder may reach over a fence, railing, rope or other line of demarcation to make a catch. He may jump on top of a railing, or canvas that may be in foul ground. No interference should be allowed when a fielder reaches over a fence, railing, rope or into a stand to catch a ball. He does so at his own risk.


MLB Rule 7.08 (d) He fails to retouch his base after a fair or foul ball is legally caught before he, or his base, is tagged by a fielder. He shall not be called out for failure to retouch his base after the first following pitch, or any play or attempted play. This is an appeal play;

I just pulled MLB.com's Rule Book for the citations because I'm at work at 3am and didn't feel like going out to the car to pull other books.
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 12:34pm
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I thought you were Jim Evans.

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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 06:07am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PWL
When the first fielder touched the ball in foul territory it became a foul ball.
No, it was still an uncaught foul fly at the point of the first touch. The ball remains live and in play until it touches the ground. Think of it like this. Suppose the fielder who made the initial touch and subsequent deflection over foul territory ended up securing the ball himself before it touched the ground. Would the runner not be entitled to leave the instant of the deflection instead of having to wait for the fielder to show secure possession.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PWL
When the second fielder caught the ball in foul territory it became a catch. You can look at it any way you want, and this is the proper call.

Fair ground.....touch

Foul ground.....catch
True, we could look at it any way we want. However, we choose to look at it in a light supported by the rules, rather than with blinders on in a cellar.


Tim.
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 08:02am
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Good God!

PWL is at it again.

How sad.

Do you guys think he does this on purpose just to get a reaction?

Sheese,
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 08:53pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PWL
What don't you understand? Are you that big of a smug JACKASS you don't know what actually constitutes a foul ball? When the first fielder touched the ball in foul territory it became a foul ball. When the second fielder caught the ball in foul territory it became a catch. You can look at it any way you want, and this is the proper call.

Fair ground.....touch

Foul ground.....catch
BR:

This is where the trouble began. After being told over and over that the runner can advance on a foul fly that was deflected to another fielder on the first touch by the first fielder, he still didn't understand the error he made. He still maintains that a runner cannot advance on a ball deflected over foul territory from one fielder to another until the ball is caught. This is erroneous information.


Tim.
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Old Fri Jun 30, 2006, 09:14pm
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Yeah, the two fielders can just volleyball the ball back and forth to each other all the way back into the infield area on all foul balls in his parallel universe.

Spaceship
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