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Old Thu May 11, 2006, 06:19pm
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Interference Kills Play?

In Fed, does interference on a baserunner immediately kill the play? In all situations?

R2 dances in front of a grounder to F6 as R3 heads home and BR heads to first. F6 picks up ball and throws BR out anyway. Then plate ump steps out to call R2 out for interference.....

So R2 is Out for interference. But is BR now Safe and R3 returns to third because the play was killed at the time the interference happened?

Is that about right?

Thanks!
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Old Thu May 11, 2006, 06:37pm
DG DG is offline
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Well you have me wondering what you mean by "dances". Was he trying to avoid getting hit or truly trying to interfere? In any event if you deem he interfered the ball is dead, and since the ball is dead the runner on 3B can not advance and the batter can not be thrown out. But be careful with this call, since F6 threw out the batter was he really interfered with?
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Old Sat May 13, 2006, 02:15pm
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Let me ask this, then:

Should an Ump wait to see the throw by F6 to judge whether or not F6 was 'hindered'...or call interference right away, before/as F6 throws the ball?

Thanks!
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Old Sat May 13, 2006, 02:29pm
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As soon as you judge that the runner violated 8-4-2 it's an immediate dead ball.



Tim.
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Old Sat May 13, 2006, 08:22pm
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by cmcramer
Let me ask this, then:

Should an Ump wait to see the throw by F6 to judge whether or not F6 was 'hindered'...or call interference right away, before/as F6 throws the ball?

Thanks!
I never wait to see the throw. I always wait to see the player field. It will be less than a quarter second from passing the runner to reaching the fielder so it is time well spent. If F6 fields it clean he can throw it in the fourth row for all I care, he was not interfered with, unless of course it was some obvious stupid move by the runner, in which case I kill it before the throw.
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Old Sun May 14, 2006, 02:36pm
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Thanks to all for the replies - I'm getting it now...

But yesterday a reply appeared - and has since apparently been edited away - that said that even after Interference was called and the play immediately killed, BR could also be called out and F3 going home could be called out....all based on Ump's judgement of whether F6 was hindered from making that particular play.

That reply had me so confused, I had to go mow the lawn and think about it.

I understand that if interference breaks up a potential double-play, that the double-play can be awarded to the defense as a penalty against the offense for the interference. But in my original situation, no obvious double-play situation.

So just to be sure: for my situation, R2 is out for interference; BR awarded first base; F3 stays put. Correct?

Thanks again.
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Old Sun May 14, 2006, 03:27pm
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Cool

cmcramer,

Leaving aside the question of whether or not the initial action described was properly ruled interference, you are correct - upon the call of interference with the defense's opportunity to field a batted ball, the ball is dead, the interfering runner is out, the BR is awarded 1B, and other runners are returned to their TOP base unless forced by the BR's award of 1B.

(The 1st baseman can go wherever he likes as long as he's in fair territory when the pitcher gets ready to pitch. )

JM

Last edited by UmpJM; Sun May 14, 2006 at 03:42pm.
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