Interference by fielder question.

[mikew4242]

Should we consider interference by an infielder in the baserunners path a free pass to the next base or should we take into consideration when making the call. If the runner was going to be clearly out should we call him safe?

[LMan]

Fielders obstruct, runners interfere.

The rest of your question is hard to understand. Take WHAT into consideration? You don't call 'safe' on an award, safe or out is irrelevant.

Clarify, please?

[UmpJM]

mikew4242,

First, you might want to change "interference" to "obstruction" in both the title and text of your post.

Second, it depends.

What was the fielder doing in the basepath. If he was "in the act of fielding", he's pretty much allowed to be there.

Also, what rules are you playing under? Under FED (aka High School) rules, if the fielder hinders the runners advance while not in the act of fielding, the obstructed runner is always awarded at least one base beyond the last legally occupied.

Under OBR rules, unless a play was being made on the obstructed runner at the time of the obstruction, the umpire awards bases (or not) to "nullify the act of obstruction".

JM

[mikew4242]

Ground ball to 3B which is gonna be any easy force out...baserunner on 2B runs into SS who is in the basepath for no reason...I call an out at 3B....does runner on 2B advance on to 3B regardless

[LMan]

I guess you have R1 and R2, since you specify a forceout at 3B.

Assuming OBR: You are correct, except for the out call. No safe/out call, immediate dead ball, R2 is protected to 3B, you now have bases loaded.

[UmpJM]

mikew,

We're getting closer, but it still depends.....

If the F5 had not yet fielded the ball at the time of the collision between the R2 and the F6 then....

Under OBR this is what is referred to as Type B Obstruction. In that case, you must judge whether or not the R2 would have been out at 3B if the Obstruction had NOT occurred. If he would have been out anyway, he's still out. If he would have been safe absent the collision, you award him 3B.

Under FED, you would award the runner 3B regardless.

JM

[RPatrino]

I had one this weekend. HS game, FED rules. Clean single to right field, 1b moves to stand on top of the base as the runner was rounding first on the single and they collide. I call "that's obstruction". When the play is over I award the BR second. Defensive coach comes out, I explain, " your player was not in the act of fielding a ball or throw, he had no business being on the base". He shrugged his shoulders and went back to the bench. BTW, he lost the game 27 - 6.

Bob P.

[LMan]

Originally Posted by CoachJM

mikew,


Under OBR this is what is referred to as Type B Obstruction.
JM

Would this not be Type A? F4 is 'playing' on the runner by forcing him at 3B. You dont have to tag a runner to be 'playing' on him.

Its the batter-runner who is not being played on.

[UmpJM]

Originally Posted by LMan

Would this not be Type A? F4 is 'playing' on the runner by forcing him at 3B. You dont have to tag a runner to be 'playing' on him.

Its the batter-runner who is not being played on.

LMan,

In order for any runner to be "played upon", some member of the defense must have posession of the ball. That's why I qualified my statement with "...If the F5 had not yet fielded the ball at the time of the collision ...".

If, on the other hand, the F5 had fielded the ball at the time of the collision (In the OP's sitch) and was running toward either the R2 or 3B to make a tag, then we would have an OBR Type A Obstruction and the ball would be immediately dead and the R2 awarded 3B.

JM

[LMan]

All clear now. I wasn't sure from the description if F4 had the ball or not, I assumed it from the 'I called him out' comment. But that's not a definite.

Thanks!