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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 12:15pm
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Ok, ok, slightly modify original situation:

It's a passed ball instead of F2 catching it.
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 12:23pm
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bossman72,

It's really pretty much the same answer. If both runners advance at least one base (you would include the Batter if he became a runner on the pitch; e.g. a Ball Four, 3rd strike not caught with 2 out or 1B open), the Balk is disregarded. If that condition is met and a runner is put out after reaching his advance base, that out would stand.

If all runners do not advance at least one base safely (including the batter if he became a runner on the pitch), the balk is enforced, the pitch is disregarded and the same batter is at the plate with the same count as prior to the "balked" pitch.

In your original sitch, R3 is going to score one way or another. There cannot be a "run nullifying" 3rd out on the play that stands. There could be something wacky like the R3 missing home plate, and the defense subsequently executing a successful appeal, but absent any baserunning infractions, the R3 scores.

No options on this one.

JM

Last edited by UmpJM; Sun May 07, 2006 at 12:28pm.
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 03:29pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CoachJM
bossman72,
If all runners do not advance at least one base safely (including the batter if he became a runner on the pitch), the balk is enforced, the pitch is disregarded and the same batter is at the plate with the same count as prior to the "balked" pitch.

JM
Of course, you mean "not all runners advance at least one base safely..."

The provision of this rule requires enforcing the balk if ANY runner does not attain his advance base, not (just) when ALL fail to do so.

Logic final exam is tomorrow.
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 04:26pm
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Well, i was thinking more along the lines of the approved ruling where the runner advances beyond the base he was awarded at his own risk. Since R1 overran the base on a wild throw, wouldn't he be in jeopardy of being put out?
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 04:30pm
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The way to think of it is what Jiggy said...The "wild throw" was by the catcher...who caught the ball...so the throw by rule never happened
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 04:37pm
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Well, on the passed ball, the wild throw was by the pitcher
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 04:50pm
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bossman72,

It is certainly possible for the defense to record an out on your "wild pitch" variation. If the R3 advances home safely and the R1 is thrown out by the catcher after reaching 2B, the out would stand and the balk would be disregarded (assuming, for the sake of simplicity, that the batter did not become a runner on the wild pitch.)

JM
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 07:59pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bossman72
Well, on the passed ball, the wild throw was by the pitcher
No, I meant that in the original play, the catcher caught the ball and threw wildly...meaning the original pitch was normal...yeah, on your scenario with the passed ball, that would be alive and in play until someone is put out BEFORE advancing one base...absolutely
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