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Old Thu Apr 20, 2006, 05:00pm
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Ball In Dirt

I was reading older threads and had a question.

In a number of places I read that if the ball hits the ground the onus of avoiding the ball is removed from the batter. The rule seems to support this as in the definitions it makes no mention of the avoidance exception when it awards first base to a batter hit by a ball that hits the ground before reaching the plate.

In another thread the situation was discussed in which a ball slipped out of the pitchers hand and rolled into the batters box and hit the batter on the foot. The consensus was that this is a ball and not a base award because the batter made no attempt to avoid.

These two opinions seem to contradict each other. Which is the correct interpretation?

Kyle
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Old Thu Apr 20, 2006, 05:57pm
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Speaking of pitch in the dirt...


Ball slips from pitcher's hand as he delivers. Ball is rolling towards the plate and appears to have enough to reach the plate. Catcher runs out and grabs the ball about 10 ft in front of home and guns out the stealing R2 at third. Do you let this go, or could you technically call catcher's interference on this?
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Old Thu Apr 20, 2006, 07:06pm
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Yes, that is CI.

I see nothing the the OBR that relieves the batter of the responsibility to try to avoid a pitched ball, whether it has hit the ground or not.
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Old Thu Apr 20, 2006, 08:22pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bossman72
Speaking of pitch in the dirt...


Ball slips from pitcher's hand as he delivers. Ball is rolling towards the plate and appears to have enough to reach the plate. Catcher runs out and grabs the ball about 10 ft in front of home and guns out the stealing R2 at third. Do you let this go, or could you technically call catcher's interference on this?
Let me have a try at this...without my rulebook handy, but here goes anyway:

FED ball - I have a balk. Pitched ball that did not cross the foul lines would be the same a dropping the ball while on the rubber. I call a dead ball. Runner gets third anyway
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Old Thu Apr 20, 2006, 08:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by blueump
Let me have a try at this...without my rulebook handy, but here goes anyway:

FED ball - I have a balk. Pitched ball that did not cross the foul lines would be the same a dropping the ball while on the rubber. I call a dead ball. Runner gets third anyway
Blueump,

But would the batter also get 1B since the catcher interfered with (or obstructed in Fed) his opportunity to hit the pitch?

JM
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Old Thu Apr 20, 2006, 09:19pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bossman72
Speaking of pitch in the dirt...


Ball slips from pitcher's hand as he delivers. Ball is rolling towards the plate and appears to have enough to reach the plate. Catcher runs out and grabs the ball about 10 ft in front of home and guns out the stealing R2 at third. Do you let this go, or could you technically call catcher's interference on this?
Is this made up, for third world discussion? How in the heck could R2 be slow enough to get thrown out at 3B when the "pitch" is rolling one towards the plate?
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Old Thu Apr 20, 2006, 11:02pm
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This is of course, made up.

The pitch had enough momentum to get to home. The catcher runs up about 10 ft in front of the plate and grabs the ball. I was just curious if this would be considered catcher's interference...

I apologize for my spontaneous TWP.
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Old Fri Apr 21, 2006, 07:17am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Armadillo_Blue
I was reading older threads and had a question.

In a number of places I read that if the ball hits the ground the onus of avoiding the ball is removed from the batter.
That's not a rule -- it's more of a "practical application." In 99.99% of the cases, you're going to give the batter the benefit of the doubt when a pitch hits the dirt.

The "slow rolling pitch" is the exception that proved the "rule."
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Old Fri Apr 21, 2006, 04:43pm
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Old Fri Apr 21, 2006, 04:56pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PWL
I wouldn't award batter 1B in this situation since he wasn't interfered with.
Did the catcher step in front of the plate and intercept the pitch?

YUP!
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Old Fri Apr 21, 2006, 09:16pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PWL
Did the batter swing and make contact with the catcher? What would the call be if you thought the batter intentionally swung or tried to make contact with the catcher to protect the runner? The ball is just rolling ten feet in front of him.

Could this be the case for the classic: "DO OVER"
Where does it say the batter has to swing and make contact with the catcher? You don't think interrupting the pitch before it reaches the batter interferes with his ability to hit the pitch?

Hell - in a bunt situation we'll just heve the catcher jump in front of the plate, catch the pitch, and throw the sucker out.

6.08 The batter becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out (provided he advances to and touches first base) when_
c) The catcher or any fielder interferes with him.

7.07 adds a balk to the penalty if there's a runner stealing home at the time

It can be a do-over but only if the interference happens before the pitch is delivered. (JEA)
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Last edited by Rich Ives; Fri Apr 21, 2006 at 10:28pm.
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