Ruling on this ...

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by mcrowder

That's either a balk (umpire judgement - HTBT) - runner to 2nd, or it's an overthrow into DBT - runner to 2nd.

Was there supposed to be something else in this sitch to worry about?

Well, it's kind of a silly point and I was trying to tie it in with the other discussion we are having regarding the 3-to-1 move.

I'm trying to ascertain several things with this play:

1) Is it considered a balk if a pitcher immediately makes a move toward 1st (without first disengaging the rubber) and does nothing other than wait for his 1st baseman to get into position ... even if it's only half-a-second?

2) Is the pause permissable as long as F1 ultimately does make the throw?

3) Finally: by the time the pitcher ultimately makes the throw (after the pause) is still considered "in contact" with the rubber? This is important because it will determine whether the runners are awarded one or two bases.

* * *

I'm inclined to rule on this play in the following manner:

Any move a pitcher makes toward 1st base from in contact with the rubber must result in an IMMEDIATE throw to the base. As soon as there is a discernible hesitation, I would call it a balk. It can't be a two-part maneuver.

I have no basis for this ruling other than the belief that this is the intent of the rule.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN