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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 05:29pm
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Fair ball hit with hands

I've searched the forum and I can't find a specific reference to this situation.

With runners on 2nd and 3rd.
My son, in an 11-13 year old league, swung at a pitch and the ball went between the 2nd and 1st baseman. He reached 1st base.

The runners on second and third scored.

Here's the gotch ya.
The ball actually hit his hand when he swung and not the bat, although he was holding the bat.
The call was made as a hit and the runners were not forced to return to their base since "the hands are part of the bat".

The other coach argued that this was a "hit by pitch" and therefore should have been a dead ball.

What should the proper decision be?

Thank you.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 05:33pm
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IMO. Play stands. If he didn't swing, then you have a dead ball HBP, If he swings and misses, you have a dead ball strike.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 05:38pm
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Just kill me now.

Kraine, by a book, attend a clinic.

NO - the hands are not part of the bat. This is myth 1-A in the long list of myths that need to be killed. If he swung, and the ball hit his hands, it's a dead ball strike. Doesn't matter where the ball goes.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 05:51pm
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If he's in the box with the bat between his legs and gets hit, does that mean the batter's penis is part of the bat? Just wondering...
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 05:57pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tim C
" . . . "the hands are part of the bat"."

It is indeed spring.
So what are you saying here? Hit or no hit?
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 06:33pm
CJN CJN is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kraine27
So what are you saying here? Hit or no hit?
He's saying no hit. This is extremely elementary situation made more complex be the widespread myth that hands are part of the bat.

As mcrowder said, the ball is dead and the result of the pitch is a strike because the batter swung at the pitch.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 06:36pm
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He is saying the batter is charged with a strike and still at bat.


If a ball hits any part of the body (including hair and hands) then the ball is dead. If the batter swings or is hit in the strike zone, it is a strike. If the batter does not attempt to move, and the ball is outside of the strike zone then it is a ball. If the batter attempts to move and does not swing then it is a hit-by-pitch and the batter is awarded first, and all forced runners advance.

I think that is all of the possible situations for a hit batter.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 07:06pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kraine27
....... If he swings and misses, you have a dead ball strike.
What!?

If you swung and missed why would the ball be dead?

these guys crack me up
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 07:15pm
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Smoke 'em, if you got 'em...

This is one of those myths that perpetuate themselves with Dads who never made it beyond Little League.

If you truly believe that the hands are part of the bat, please tell me where you buy those bats. It's been a long time since I purchased said equipment, but I don't recall getting hands as part of the deal. I hope I still have the receipt.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 07:24pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by orioles35


If he's in the box with the bat between his legs and gets hit, does that mean the batter's penis is part of the bat? Just wondering...
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 08:53pm
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My Mistake

First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 09:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kraine27
First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.
Kraine,

Don't let it bother you, man!

It's just that "the hands are part of the bat" is the myth that is listed #1 on the myth list. It is one of the oldest jokes around, and nobody that has umpired for a while is used to seeing someone say it.

You really can't blame people on this one. It's right up there with "tie goes to the runner" as far as untrue statements go.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 09:57pm
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What's next on that list? I would say it's the old 1+1 for balls thrown into DBT.



Tim.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 10:11pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BigUmp56
What's next on that list? I would say it's the old 1+1 for balls thrown into DBT.



Tim.
Tim, might as well post the link.

Kraine, Dad03, and all newer umpires. These are the common myths of baseball:

http://www.lzbsa.org/rules%20myths.htm
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 11:06pm
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I think #2 is "Tie goes to runner". Coaches give me that alot, at which point I enter philisophical debate that it is impossible for two independent events to happen at the same exact moment in time. Once I say that, they look puzzled and walk back to where they came from.

If you put a stop watch on them, and carried out those decimals, eventually there would be a difference one way or the other.

Can I be on that show "Myth Busters" now?
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